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3 years ago

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Two planets orbit a far away star as shown. Is it possible that both planets experience the same gravitation force from the star

?
A) No, it is not possible.
B) Yes, it is possible if the closer planet has less mass.
C) Yes, it is possible if the closer planet as a smaller radius.
D) Yes, it is possible if the closer planet orbits the star in a shorter time.

1 answer:

Vesna [10]3 years ago

8 0

As we know that gravitational force on two planets will be given as

let

mass of star = M

mass of two planets are m1 and m2

their distance from star is r1 and r2

$F = \frac{GMm_1}{r_1^2} = \frac{GMm_2}{r_2^2}$

since the gravitational force of star is given on two planets to be same

so here we can say

$\frac{m_1}{r_1^2} = \frac{m_2}{r_2^2}$

now if the ratio of mass and distance is same then we can say that closer planet must have lesser mass to hold good for above equation

so correct answer will be

B) Yes, it is possible if the closer planet has less mass.

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A small circular coil of 5 turns of wire lies in a uniform magnetic field of 0.8 T, so that the normal to the plane of the coil

Travka [436]

Complete question:

A small circular coil of 5 turns of wire lies in a uniform magnetic field of 0.8 T, so that the normal to the plane of the coil makes an angle of 100◦ with the direction of B~ . The radius of the coil is 4 cm, and it carries a current of 1 A.

What is magnitude of the magnetic moment of the coil? Answer in units of A · m2.

Answer:

The magnetic moment of the coil is 0.0252 A.m²

Explanation:

Given;

radius of the coil, r = 4 cm = 0.04 m

number of turns of the coil, N = 5 turns

magnetic field strength B = 0.8 T

current in the coil, I = 1 A

Area of the coil, A = πr² = π(0.04)² = 0.00503 m²

magnetic moment of the coil, μ = NIA

where;

N is the number of turns

I is the current in the coil

A is the area of the coil

magnetic moment of the coil, μ = 5 x 1 x 0.00503 = 0.0252 A.m²

Therefore, the magnetic moment of the coil is 0.0252 A.m²

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3 years ago

A pebble is released from rest at a certain height and falls freely, reaching an impact speed of 6 m/s at the floor. Next, the p

Anna71 [15]

Answer:

Explanation:

Let h be the height .

initial velocity in first case u = 0

final velocity v = 6 m /s

acceleration due to gravity g = 9.8 m /s²

v² = u² + 2 g h

6² = 0 + 2 x 9.8 x h

h = 1.837 m .

For second case u = 3 m /s

v² = u² + 2 gh

= 3² + 2 x 1.837 x 9.8

= 9 + 36

= 45 m

v = 6.7 m /s

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3 years ago

Red light of wavelength 630 nm passes through two slits and then onto a screen that is 1.4 m from the slits. The center of the 3

VARVARA [1.3K]

Answer:

Part a)

$f = 4.76 \times 10^{14} Hz$

Part b)

$d = 3.48 \times 10^{-4} m$

Part c)

$\theta = 0.311 degree$

Explanation:

Part a)

As we know that the speed of light is given as

$c = 3 \times 10^8 m/s$

$\lambda = 630 nm$

now the frequency of the light is given as

$f = \frac{c}{\lambda}$

so we have

$f = \frac{3 \times 10^8}{630 \times 10^{-9}}$

$f = 4.76 \times 10^{14} Hz$

Part b)

Position of Nth maximum intensity on the screen is given as

$y_n = \frac{n\lambda L}{d}$

so here we know for 3rd order maximum intensity

$y_3 = 0.76 cm$

n = 3

L = 1.4 m

$0.76 \times 10^{-2} = \frac{3(630 \times 10^{-9})(1.4)}{d}$

$d = 3.48 \times 10^{-4} m$

Part c)

angle of third order maximum is given as

$d sin\theta = 3 \lambda$

$3.48 \times 10^{-4} sin\theta = 3(630 \times 10^{-9})$

$\theta = 0.311 degree$

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2 years ago

How does an atom of chlorine-37 become a chloride ion with a -1 charge?

kirill115 [55]

Answer:

B. The atom gains 1 electron, to make a total of 18 electrons.

Explanation:

Chlorine is the 17th element in the periodic table, so it has atomic number 17:

Z = 17

This means that a neutral atom of chlorine has 17 protons and 17 electrons.

When a chlorine atom gains 1 electron, its electric charge (initially zero) becomes -1, since the electron has negative charge of -1 (in elemntary charge units). This also means that the number of electrons in the ion is now

17 + 1 = 18

So the correct answer is

B. The atom gains 1 electron, to make a total of 18 electrons

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3 years ago

A particle undergoes two displacements. The first has a magnitude of 11 m and makes an angle of 82 ◦ with the positive x axis. T

Luden [163]

Answer:

$\theta = 211.7 degree$

Explanation:

First displacement of the particle is given as

$r_1$ = 11 m at 82 degree with positive X axis

so we can say

$\vec r_1 = 11 cos82 \hat i + 11 sin82 \hat j$

$\vec r_1 = 1.53\hat i + 10.9 \hat j$

resultant displacement of the particle after second displacement is given as

r = 8.7 m at 135 degree with positive X axis

so we can say

$r = 8.7 cos135\hat i + 8.7 sin135\hat j$

$r = -6.15 \hat i + 6.15 \hat j$

now we know that

$r = r_1 + r_2$

now we have

$r_2 = r - r_1$

so we will have

$r_2 = (-6.15 \hat i + 6.15 \hat j) - (1.53\hat i + 10.9 \hat j)$

$r_2 = -7.68 \hat i - 4.75 \hat j$

so angle of the second displacement is given as

$tan\theta = \frac{r_y}{r_x}$

$tan\theta = \frac{-4.75}{-7.68}$

$\theta = 211.7 degree$

8 0

3 years ago