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Cloud [144]
3 years ago
12

Through which one of the following mediums is the velocity of a sound wave the greatest?

Physics
1 answer:
Colt1911 [192]3 years ago
6 0

Answer: <u><em>C. Steel</em></u>

Explanation: <em><u>When a sound wave travels through a solid body consisting</u></em>

<em><u /></em>

<em><u>of an elastic material, the velocity of the wave is relatively</u></em>

<em><u /></em>

<em><u>high. For instance, the velocity of a sound wave traveling</u></em>

<em><u /></em>

<em><u>through steel (which is almost perfectly elastic) is about</u></em>

<em><u /></em>

<em><u>5,060 meters per second. On the other hand, the velocity</u></em>

<em><u /></em>

<em><u>of a sound wave traveling through an inelastic solid is</u></em>

<em><u /></em>

<em><u>relatively low. So, for example, the velocity of a sound wave</u></em>

<em><u /></em>

<em><u>traveling through lead (which is inelastic) is approximately</u></em>

<em><u /></em>

<em><u>1,402 meters per second.</u></em>

<em><u /></em>

<u><em /></u>

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An object is projected from the ground with an upward speed of ų m/s has a speed of 23m/s when it is at a height of 5m above the
vovikov84 [41]

Answer:

25.08m/s

Explanation:

mgh1 + 0.5mv1² = mgh2 + 0.5mv2²

h1 = 0m

v1 = u

h2 = 5m

v2 = 23m/s

putting the values into the formula above;

m(10)(0) + 0.5m(u²) = m(10)(5) + 0.5m(23²)

0 + 0.5mu² = 50m + 264.5m

0.5mu² = 314.5m

dividing through by m

0.5u² = 314.5

u² = 629

u = <u>2</u><u>5</u><u>.</u><u>0</u><u>8</u><u>m</u><u>/</u><u>s</u>

<u>Theref</u><u>ore</u><u>,</u><u> </u><u>the</u><u> </u><u>init</u><u>ial</u><u> </u><u>speed</u><u> </u><u>"</u><u>u</u><u>"</u><u> </u><u>=</u><u> </u><u>2</u><u>5</u><u>m</u><u>/</u><u>s</u>

6 0
3 years ago
1) La longitud del brazo de potencia de una palanca es de 0,0035 hectómetros y la del brazo de resistencia es de 55 centímetros.
Arlecino [84]

Answer:

Entonces seria 127 para vencer.

Explanation:

espero averte ayudado:-)

6 0
3 years ago
Initially, a 2.00-kg mass is whirling at the end of a string (in a circular path of radius 0.750 m) on a horizontal frictionless
drek231 [11]

Answer:

v_f = 15 \frac{m}{s}

Explanation:

We can solve this problem using conservation of angular momentum.

The angular momentum \vec{L} is

\vec{L}  = \vec{r} \times \vec{p}

where \vec{r} is the position and \vec{p} the linear momentum.

We also know that the torque is

\vec{\tau} = \frac{d\vec{L}}{dt}  = \frac{d}{dt} ( \vec{r} \times \vec{p} )

\vec{\tau} =  \frac{d}{dt}  \vec{r} \times \vec{p} +   \vec{r} \times \frac{d}{dt} \vec{p}

\vec{\tau} =  \vec{v} \times \vec{p} +   \vec{r} \times \vec{F}

but, as the linear momentum is \vec{p} = m \vec{v} this means that is parallel to the velocity, and the first term must equal zero

\vec{v} \times \vec{p}=0

so

\vec{\tau} =   \vec{r} \times \vec{F}

But, as the only horizontal force is the tension of the string, the force must be parallel to the vector position measured from the vertical rod, so

\vec{\tau}_{rod} =   0

this means, for the angular momentum measure from the rod:

\frac{d\vec{L}_{rod}}{dt} =   0

that means :

\vec{L}_{rod} = constant

So, the magnitude of initial angular momentum is :

| \vec{L}_{rod_i} | = |\vec{r}_i||\vec{p}_i| cos(\theta)

but the angle is 90°, so:

| \vec{L}_{rod_i} | = |\vec{r}_i||\vec{p}_i|

| \vec{L}_{rod_i} | = r_i * m * v_i

We know that the distance to the rod is 0.750 m, the mass 2.00 kg and the speed 5 m/s, so:

| \vec{L}_{rod_i} | = 0.750 \ m \ 2.00 \ kg \ 5 \ \frac{m}{s}

| \vec{L}_{rod_i} | = 7.5 \frac{kg m^2}{s}

For our final angular momentum we have:

| \vec{L}_{rod_f} | = r_f * m * v_f

and the radius is 0.250 m and the mass is 2.00 kg

| \vec{L}_{rod_f} | = 0.250 m * 2.00 kg * v_f

but, as the angular momentum is constant, this must be equal to the initial angular momentum

7.5 \frac{kg m^2}{s} = 0.250 m * 2.00 kg * v_f

v_f = \frac{7.5 \frac{kg m^2}{s}}{ 0.250 m * 2.00 kg}

v_f = 15 \frac{m}{s}

8 0
3 years ago
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