-π/2 < arctan(x) < π/2
So cos(π/2) < cos(arctan(x)) < cos(0)
0 < cos(arctan(x)) < 1
Answer:
6/8
Step-by-step explanation:
2/8 + 2/8 + 2/8 = 6/8.
Add the tops. Hope this helps :)
Hey!
Explanation:
↓↓↓↓↓↓↓↓↓↓
First, remove parenthesis.
Secondly, multiple by the numbers.
Third, apply exponents rule.
Finally, refine.
<u><em>Answer⇒⇒⇒⇒28</em></u>
Hope this helps!
Thank you for posting your question at here on Brainly.
Have a great day!
-Charlie
Answer:
20 % are red
Step-by-step explanation:
I THINK this is what you mean:
24 blue + 6 red = 30 blocks total
6 red / 30 total = 6/30 = .2 = 20 %
For (h+g)(x) you just add the two functions:
(h+g)(x) = 4x + 2x^2
For (h•g)(x) you multiply them:
(h•g)(x) = 4x • 2x^2 = 8x^3
For (h-g)(x) you subtract them:
(h-g)(x) = 4x - 2x^2
For (h-g)(-2) you sub -2 into the equation we just created:
(h-g)(-2) = 4(-2) - 2(-2)^2
(h-g)(-2) = -8 - 2(4)
(h-g)(-2) = -8 - 8
(h-g)(-2) = -16
