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neonofarm [45]
3 years ago
10

Resistance of rod is 1 ohm. It is bent in the form of square. The resistance across adjoint corners is.​

Physics
1 answer:
nirvana33 [79]3 years ago
3 0

Answer: The answer to the question is 0.25 ohms

Explanation:

R = u x/A .......1

where u is chosen as the resistivity of

the rod, A is area of the rod and x is

chosen as the length of the rod.

Let R* be the resistance of the

lengths of the rod across the adjoints

Then R* = u1/4.......2

Comparing equation 1 and 2

R* = 1/4

=0.25ohms

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In a perfectly elastic collision between two perfectly rigid objects
ipn [44]

Both the total momentum and the total kinetic energy are conserved

Explanation:

- In a collision between two or more objects, if there are no external forces acting on the system (isolated system), the total momentum of the objects is always conserved. This is called principle of conservation of momentum, and can be written as follows:

mu+MU = mv+MV

where

m, M are the masses of the two objects

u, U are the initial velocities of the two objects

v, V are the final velocities of the two objects

- The total kinetic energy, however, is not always conserved. In fact, we have two types of collision:

1) In a perfectly elastic collision, the total kinetic energy of the objects is conserved. This means that we can write the following equation:

\frac{1}{2}mu^2 + \frac{1}{2}MU^2 = \frac{1}{2}mv^2+\frac{1}{2}MV^2

2) In an inelastic collision, the total kinetic energy of the object is NOT conserved. This means that part of the total kinetic energy is "lost", converted into other forms of energy (mainly thermal energy, due to the presence of frictional forces within the system). The most extreme case is called perfectly inelastic collision, in which the two objects stick together after the collision, and there is the maximum loss of kinetic energy.

Learn more about collisions:

brainly.com/question/13966693#

brainly.com/question/6439920

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7 0
3 years ago
A spinning wheel has a rotational inertia of 2 kg•m². It has an angular velocity of 6.0 rad/s. An average counterclockwise torqu
ira [324]

Answer:

-20.0 kg m^2/s

Explanation:

The angular momentum of an object in rotation is given by

L=I \omega

where

I is the moment of inertia

\omega is the angular speed

In this problem, initially we have

I=2 kg m^2 is the moment of inertia of the wheel

\omega_i = 6.0 rad/s is the initial angular speed

So the initial angular momentum is

L_i = I\omega_i = (2)(6.0)=12 kg m^2/s

Later, a counterclockwise torque of

\tau=-5.0 Nm is applied

So the angular acceleration of the wheel is:

\alpha = \frac{\tau}{I}=\frac{-5.0}{2}=-2.5 rad/s^2 in the direction opposite to the initial rotation.

As a result, the final angular velocity of the wheel will be:

\omega_f = \omega_i + \alpha t

where

t = 4.0 is the time interval

Solving,

\omega_f = +6.0 +(-2.5)(4.0)=-4 rad/s

which means that now the wheel is rotating in the counterclockwise direction.

Therefore, the new angular momentum of the wheel is:

L_f = I\omega_f =(2)(-4.0)=-8.0 kg m^2/s

So, the change in angular momentum is:

\Delta L=L_f - L_i = (-8.0-(12))=-20.0 kg m/s^2

7 0
3 years ago
Which change will always result in an increase in gravitational force between two objects
grin007 [14]
Increasing the masses of the objects and decreasing the distance between the objects
7 0
4 years ago
Read 2 more answers
What is the mass of an object that requires 100N of force in order to accelerate 10m/s2
iragen [17]

Explanation:

Hey there!

Given;

Force (f) = 100 N

Acceleration (a) = 10m/s^2.

Mass (m)=?

We have;

Force = mass * acceleration.

So,

100 = m * 10

Or, 100 = 10m

Or, m= 100/10

Therefore, mass is 10kg.

<em><u>Hope</u></em><em><u> it</u></em><em><u> helps</u></em><em><u>.</u></em><em><u>.</u></em><em><u>.</u></em><em><u>.</u></em>

3 0
3 years ago
Why is an si measurement system so important in the science comunity?
scoray [572]
Because without Si there wouldn't be units of measurements.
So SI is t<span>he international system of units of measurements.</span>
3 0
3 years ago
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