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nekit [7.7K]
3 years ago
9

Refer to the following transactions.

Business
1 answer:
Mashutka [201]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

1 a) + asset , + preferred stock

b) + asset , + preferred stock

c) + assets , + stockholder's equity

d) - and + Asset

e) + -Asset

f) - Equity , + liability

g) - Equity , - Asset

journal entry

a) Debit bank 700000 Credit Preferred stock 700000

b) debit land 420000 , credit preferred stock 420000

c) debit bank 768000 credit stockholder's equity 768000

d) Debit investment 270000 credit bank 270000

e) Debit bank 189000 , credit investment 189000

f) Debit dividend 19600 credit shareholders for dividends 19600

g) debit dividends 96000  credit bank 96000

Explanation:

dividends preferred = 7000 + 4200 = 11200 * 1 . 75 = 19600

dividends common stock = 48000 * 25 * 8 % = 96000

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Generally, when business startup costs exceed the maximum amount allowed, the remaining costs may be amortized over_____ months.
irina1246 [14]

Answer:

The correct answer is letter "B": 180.

Explanation:

During the first year a business operates, companies can elect to deduct up to $5,000 from their costs. If the costs are higher than $50,000, the deduction of $5,000 will be reduced by the exceeding amount. However, that exceeding amount can be amortized for up to 15 years (180 months).

8 0
3 years ago
An analyst needs to adjust the nominal GDP for the years 2000 and 2010 into real terms to conclude his comparison analysis. The
valentina_108 [34]

Answer:

The answer is: the real gain in real GDP between 2010 and 2000 is 18.34%

Explanation:

First we have to determine the real GDP using the GDP deflator.

GDP deflator = (nominal GDP / real GDP) x 100

For year 2000:

24 = ($672 billion / real GDP ) x 100

2,400 = $672 billion / real GDP

real GDP = $0.28 billion

For year 2010:

51 = ($1,690 billion / real GDP ) x 100

5,100 = $1,690 billion / real GDP

real GDP = $0.331 billion

To calculate the real gain between real GDP from year 2000 to year 2010, we divide real GDP 2010 over real GDP 2000 and subtract 1:

($0.331 billion / $0.28 billion) -1 = 0.1834 x 100% = 18.34%

5 0
4 years ago
The risk premium (hence expected return) of a security is determined by its ________ risk and does not depend on its ___________
Rzqust [24]

Answer:

systematic risk ,diversifiable risk

Explanation:

risk premium is the investment return demanded by an investor for buying a risky assets that an investment is anticipated to deliver it reward to those who are willing to take higher risk than investors who prefer risk free investment.

systematic risk when economic treds influence assets and the market in similr way than investment risk for similr assets are corellated Systematic risk cannot be diversified away. Non-systematic risk, or the risk unique to each individual security, meanwhile, can be mitigated through diversification.

conclusion: both the sytematic and nom systematic risk are the influencing factor of the risk premium while sytematic risk is not influenced by market but diversfiable risk are influenced by market .

brainly.com/question/14055202?utm_source=android&utm_medium=share&utm_campaign=question

#spj4

7 0
1 year ago
Science explanation avout mesurement
maw [93]

Answer:

what is the importance of trade international trade?

International trade is of great importance at international level as it binds or bonds countries together and enhance trade by barter as well as helps to generate more money. International trade also helps in improving economy as it increases internal generated revenue from imported goods and services

Explanation:

4 0
3 years ago
1. Assume you are planning to invest $200 each year for four years and will earn 8 percent per year. Determine the future value
Virty [35]

Answer:

The future value of the $200 invested yearly for 4 years at 8% is $973.32

Explanation:

The future value of an immediate annuity is given by the formula = (1+r)*[P*((1+r)^n-1)/r]

P=is the periodic payment of $200

r=rate of return=8 percent

n=number of years=4

By slotting the variables into the formula we have:

Fv=(1+0.08)*(200*((1+0.08)^4-1)/0.08)

FV=$973.32

Judging by the concept of time value of money, it is expected that the sum invested at interest would have been much more at maturity of the investment as $1 today should give a lot more than $1 in future.

6 0
4 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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