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marissa [1.9K]
3 years ago
9

What is the difference between tension and compression?

Engineering
1 answer:
Aleks04 [339]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:Tension is a force that attempts to elongate an object. Compression is a force that attempts to shorten an object.

Explanation:

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The current in a 20 mH inductor is known to be: 푖푖=40푚푚푚푚푡푡≤0푖푖=푚푚1푒푒−10,000푡푡+푚푚2푒푒−40,000푡푡푚푚푡푡≥0The voltage across the induct
Anni [7]

Answer:

a) The expression for electrical current: i = -0.134*e^(-10,000*t) + 0.174*e^(-40,000*t) A

The expression for voltage: v = 26.8*e^(-10,000*t) - 139.2*e^(-40,000*t) V

b) For t<=0 the inductor is storing energy and for t > 0 the inductor is delivering energy.

Explanation:

The question text is corrupted. I found the complete question on the web and it goes as follow:

The current in a 20 mH inductor is known to be: i = 40 mA at t<=0 and i = A1*e^(-10,000*t) + A2*e^(-40,000*t) A at t>0. The voltage across the inductor (passive sign convention) is -68 V at t = 0.

a. Find the numerical expressions for i and v for t>0.

b. Specify the time intervals when the inductor is storing energy and is delivering energy.

A inductor stores energy in the form of a magnetic field, it behaves in a way that oposes sudden changes in the electric current that flows through it, therefore at moment just after t = 0, that for convenience we'll call t = 0+, the current should be the same as t=0, so:

i = A1*e^(-10,000*(0)) + A2*e^(-40,000*(0))

40*10^(-3) = A1*e^(-10,000*0) + A2*e^(-40,000*0)

40*10^(-3) = (A1)*1 + (A2)*1

40*10^(-3) = A1 + A2

A1 + A2 = 40*10^(-3)

Since we have two variables (A1 and A2) we need another equation to be able to solve for both. For that reason we will use the voltage expression for a inductor, that is:

V = L*di/dt

We have the voltage drop across the inductor at t=0 and we know that the current at t=0 and the following moments after that should be equal, so we can use the current equation for t > 0 to find the derivative on that point, so:

di/dt = d(A1*e^(-10,000*t) + A2*e^(-40,000*t))/dt

di/dt = [d(-10,000*t)/dt]*A1*e^(-10,000*t) + [d(-40,000*t)/dt]*A2*e^(-40,000*t)

di/dt = -10,000*A1*e^(-10,000*t) -40,000*A2*e^(-40,000*t)

By applying t = 0 to this expression we have:

di/dt (at t = 0) = -10,000*A1*e^(-10,000*0) - 40,000*A2*e^(-40,000*0)

di/dt (at t = 0) = -10,000*A1*e^0 - 40,000*A2*e^0

di/dt (at t = 0) = -10,000*A1- 40,000*A2

We can now use the voltage equation for the inductor at t=0, that is:

v = L di/dt (at t=0)

68 = [20*10^(-3)]*(-10,000*A1 - 40,000*A2)

68 = -400*A1 -800*A2

-400*A1 - 800*A2 = 68

We now have a system with two equations and two variable, therefore we can solve it for both:

A1 + A2 = 40*10^(-3)

-400*A1 - 800*A2 = 68

Using the first equation we have:

A1 = 40*10^(-3) - A2

We can apply this to the second equation to solve for A2:

-400*[40*10^(-3) - A2] - 800*A2 = 68

-1.6 + 400*A2 - 800*A2 = 68

-1.6 -400*A2 = 68

-400*A2 = 68 + 1.6

A2 = 69.6/400 = 0.174

We use this value of A2 to calculate A1:

A1 = 40*10^(-3) - 0.174 = -0.134

Applying these values on the expression we have the equations for both the current and tension on the inductor:

i = -0.134*e^(-10,000*t) + 0.174*e^(-40,000*t) A

v = [20*10^(-3)]*[-10,000*(-0.134)*e^(-10,000*t) -40,000*(0.174)*e^(-40,000*t)]

v = [20*10^(-3)]*[1340*e^(-10,000*t) - 6960*e^(-40,000*t)]

v = 26.8*e^(-10,000*t) - 139.2*e^(-40,000*t) V

b) The question states that the current for the inductor at t > 0 is a exponential powered by negative numbers it is expected that its current will reach 0 at t = infinity. So, from t =0 to t = infinity the inductor is delivering energy. Since at time t = 0 the inductor already has a current flow of 40 mA and a voltage, we can assume it already had energy stored, therefore for t<0 it is storing energy.

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What does the word “robot” mean? A.Clone B. Athlete C. Servant D. Actor
hram777 [196]

Answer:

a. clone

Explanation:

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Which of the following is an example of a hardwood? A maple B spruce C pine D fir
bearhunter [10]

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7 0
2 years ago
A steam power plant operates on an ideal reheat- regenerative Rankine cycle and has a net power output of 80 MW. Steam enters th
trasher [3.6K]

Answer:

flow(m) = 54.45 kg/s

thermal efficiency u = 44.48%

Explanation:

Given:

- P_1 = P_8 = 10 KPa

- P_2 = P_3 = P_6 = P_7 = 800 KPa

- P_4 = P_5 = 10,000 KPa

- T_5 = 550 C

- T_7 = 500 C

- Power Output P = 80 MW

Find:

-  The mass flow rate of steam through the boiler

-  The thermal efficiency of the cycle.

Solution:

State 1:

P_1 = 10 KPa , saturated liquid

h_1 = 192 KJ/kg

v_1 = 0.00101 m^3 / kg

State 2:

P_2 = 800 KPa , constant volume process work done:

h_2 = h_1 + v_1 * ( P_2 - P_1)

h_2 = 192 + 0.00101*(790) = 192.80 KJ/kg

State 3:

P_3 = 800 KPa , saturated liquid

h_3 = 721 KJ/kg

v_3 = 0.00111 m^3 / kg

State 4:

P_4 = 10,000 KPa , constant volume process work done:

h_4 = h_3 + v_3 * ( P_4 - P_3)

h_4 = 721 + 0.00111*(9200) = 731.21 KJ/kg

State 5:

P_5 = 10,000 KPa , T_5 = 550 C

h_5 = 3500 KJ/kg

s_5 = 6.760 KJ/kgK

State 6:

P_6 = 800 KPa , s_5 = s_6 = 6.760 KJ/kgK

h_6 = 2810 KJ/kg

State 7:

P_7 = 800 KPa , T_7 = 500 C

h_7 = 3480 KJ/kg

s_7 = 7.870 KJ/kgK

State 8:

P_8 = 10 KPa , s_8 = s_7 = 7.870 KJ/kgK

h_8 = 2490 KJ/kg

- Fraction of steam y = flow(m_6 / m_3).

- Use energy balance of steam bleed and cold feed-water:

                                        E_6 + E_2 = E_3

               flow(m_6)*h_6 + flow(m_2)*h_3 = flow(m_3)*h_3

                                    y*h_6 + (1-y)*h_3 = h_3

                                  y*2810 + (1-y)*192.8 = 721

Compute y:                          y = 0.2018

- Heat produced by the boiler q_b:

                             q_b = h_5 - h_4 +(1-y)*(h_7 - h_8)

                    q_b = 3500 -731.21 + ( 1 - 0.2018)*(3480 - 2810)

Compute q_b:               q_b = 3303.58 KJ/ kg

-Heat dissipated by the condenser q_c:

                                       q_c = (1-y)*(h_8 - h_1)

                                 q_c= ( 1 + 0.2018)*(2810 - 192)

Compute q_c:               q_c = 1834.26 KJ/ kg

- Net power output w_net:

                                     w_net = q_b - q_c

                                w_net = 3303.58 - 1834.26

                                    w_net = 1469.32 KJ/kg

- Given out put P = 80,000 KW

                                     flow(m) = P / w_net

compute flow(m)          flow(m) = 80,000 /1469.32 = 54.45 kg/s

- Thermal efficiency u:

                                     u = 1 - (q_c / q_b)

                                     u = 1 - (1834.26/3303.58)

                                     u = 44.48 %

5 0
3 years ago
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