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Law Incorporation [45]
3 years ago
11

Why does a straw look broken viewed in a glass of water?

Physics
1 answer:
Nat2105 [25]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

This is due to refraction of light

Explanation:

When a straw is placed in a glass it appears to be broken as a result of refraction of light on the air-water interface.

Since, the refractive index of water is more than that of glass.

Also, water is denser than air, which means light travels slower in water than in air.

Most importantly, When light travels from rarer to denser medium it bents towards the normal and deviates from its original path which explains the broken view of straw in a glass of water.  

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A particle moves along a straight path through a displacement d = 2.5i + cj while a force F = 8.5i + -8.5j acts on it. The displ
Zanzabum

Answer:

Explanation:

Work is defined as the scalar product of force and distance

W=F•d

Given that

F = 8.5i + -8.5j. +×-=-

F=8.5i-8.5j

d = 2.5i + cj

If the work in the practice is zero, then W=0

therefore,

W=F•ds

0=F•ds

0=(8.5i -8.5j)•(2.5i + cj)

Note that

i.i=j.j=k.k=1

i.j=j.i=k.i=i.k=j.k=k.j=0

So applying this

0=(8.5i -8.5j)•(2.5i + cj)

0= (8.5×2.5i.i + 8.5×ci.j -8.5×2.5j.i-8.5×cj.j)

0=21.25-8.5c

Therefore,

8.5c=21.25

c=21.25/8.5

c=2.5

7 0
3 years ago
How much metabolic energy is required for a 68kg person to run at a speed of 15km/hr for 15min ?
irga5000 [103]
<span>What I have here is exactly the same problem, however, with the time changed to 19 mins:

metabolic energy = metabolic power*time = 1.150*19*60 = 1.311 kJ..corresponding to 1.311/4.186 = 313,2 Cal or kcal 

If we reasonably assume a metabolic eff.cy of 20%, it means we need to assume food for 1500 Cal approx.

Just plug the value t=15min to the equation and you will surely get the correct answer.

I hope my answer has come to your help. Thank you for posting your question here in Brainly. We hope to answer more of your questions and inquiries soon. Have a nice day ahead!
</span>
8 0
3 years ago
As shown in the figure below, Justin walks from the house to his truck on a windy day. He walks 20 m toward
juin [17]

Complete Question

The complete question is shown on the first uploaded image

Answer:

The velocity is   v =0.333 \  m/s in positive x -direction

The speed is s = 0.733 \ m/s

Explanation:

From the question we are told that

The distance from the house to truck is  D =  20 m

  The distance traveled back to retrieve  wind-blown hat is  d =  15

  The distance from the wind-blown hat position too the truck is  k =  20  m

  The total time taken is  t  =  75 s

Generally when calculating the displacement the Justin's backward movement to collect his wind - blown hat is taken as negative

Generally Justin's displacement is mathematically represented as

      L  =  20 - 15 + 20

=>    L  =  25 \ m

Generally the average velocity is mathematically represented as

          v  =  \frac{L}{t}

=>      v = \frac{25}{75}

=>      v =0.333 \  m/s

Generally the distance covered by Justin is mathematically represented as  

         R =  D+ d + k

=>      R =  20 + 15 +20

=>     R =  55 \  m

Generally Justin's average speed over a 75 s period is mathematically represented as

            s = \frac{R}{ t}

=>         s = \frac{55}{ 75}

=>        s = 0.733 \ m/s

8 0
3 years ago
PIUDICITIS CONSECulvely and Circle your aliswers. Lilyo
mihalych1998 [28]

Answer:

The angular acceleration of CD player is 13.93\ rad/s^2.

Explanation:

Initial angular speed of a CD player is 0 and final angular speed is 41.8 rad/s. Time to change the angular speed is 3 s.

It is required to find the angular acceleration. The change in angular speed of the CD player divided by time taken is called its angular acceleration. It can be given by :

a=\dfrac{\omega_f-\omega_i}{t}\\\\a=\dfrac{41.8-0}{3}\\\\a=13.94\ rad/s^2

So, the angular acceleration of CD player is 13.93\ rad/s^2.

7 0
3 years ago
Two loops of wire are arranged so that a changing current in one will induce a current in the other. If the current in the first
patriot [66]

Answer:

The current in the second loop will stay constant

Explanation:

Since the induced emf in the second coil, ε due to the changing current i₁ in the first wire loop ε = -Mdi₁/dt where M = mutual inductance of the coils and di₁/dt = rate of change of current in the first coil = + 1 A/s (positive since it is clockwise)

Now ε = i₂R where i₂ = current in second wire loop and R = resistance of second wire loop.

So,  i₂R = -Mdi₁/dt

i₂ = -Mdi₁/dt/R

Since di₁/dt = + 1 A/s,

i₂ = -Mdi₁/dt/R

i₂ = -M × + 1 A/s/R

i₂ = -M/R

Since M and R are constant, this implies that i₂ = constant

<u>So, the current in the second wire loop will stay constant.</u>

3 0
3 years ago
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