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3 years ago

Why does a straw look broken viewed in a glass of water?

Physics

1 answer:

Nat2105 [25]3 years ago

7 0

Answer:

This is due to refraction of light

Explanation:

When a straw is placed in a glass it appears to be broken as a result of refraction of light on the air-water interface.

Since, the refractive index of water is more than that of glass.

Also, water is denser than air, which means light travels slower in water than in air.

Most importantly, When light travels from rarer to denser medium it bents towards the normal and deviates from its original path which explains the broken view of straw in a glass of water.

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3 years ago

In a solution, the substance that does the dissolving is called Blank Space __________.

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3 years ago

The famous scientist Galileo Galilei did several experiments with sloping planes, which he rolled metal balls down so that he co

KatRina [158]

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3 years ago

Three masses are located in the x- y plane as follows: a mass of 6 kg is at (0 m, 0 m), a mass of 4 kg is at (3 m, 0 m), and a m

enot [183]

Answer:

The center of mass of three mass in the x-y plane is located at (1,0.5).

Explanation:

It is given that, a mass of 6 kg is at (0,0), a mass of 4 kg is at (3,0), and a mass of 2 kg is at (0,3). We need to find the center of mass of the system. Center of mass in x direction is :

$C_x=\dfrac{6\times 0+4\times 3+2\times 0}{6+4+2}\\\\C_x=1$

The center of mass in y direction is :

$C_y=\dfrac{6\times 0+4\times 0+2\times 3}{6+4+2}\\\\C_y=0.5$

So, the center of mass of three mass in the x-y plane is located at (1,0.5).

3 0

3 years ago

A closely wound, circular coil with a diameter of 4.30 cm has 470 turns and carries a current of 0.460 A .

Nadusha1986 [10]

Hi there!

a)
Let's use Biot-Savart's law to derive an expression for the magnetic field produced by ONE loop.

$dB = \frac{\mu_0}{4\pi} \frac{id\vec{l} \times \hat{r}}{r^2}$

dB = Differential Magnetic field element

μ₀ = Permeability of free space (4π × 10⁻⁷ Tm/A)

R = radius of loop (2.15 cm = 0.0215 m)

i = Current in loop (0.460 A)

For a circular coil, the radius vector and the differential length vector are ALWAYS perpendicular. So, for their cross-product, since sin(90) = 1, we can disregard it.

$dB = \frac{\mu_0}{4\pi} \frac{id\vec{l}}{r^2}$

Now, let's write the integral, replacing 'dl' with 'ds' for an arc length:
$B = \int \frac{\mu_0}{4\pi} \frac{ids}{R^2}$

Taking out constants from the integral:
$B =\frac{\mu_0 i}{4\pi R^2} \int ds$

Since we are integrating around an entire circle, we are integrating from 0 to 2π.

$B =\frac{\mu_0 i}{4\pi R^2} \int\limits^{2\pi R}_0 \, ds$

Evaluate:
$B =\frac{\mu_0 i}{4\pi R^2} (2\pi R- 0) = \frac{\mu_0 i}{2R}$

Plugging in our givens to solve for the magnetic field strength of one loop:

$B = \frac{(4\pi *10^{-7}) (0.460)}{2(0.0215)} = 1.3443 \mu T$

Multiply by the number of loops to find the total magnetic field:
$B_T = N B = 0.00631 = \boxed{6.318 mT}$

Now, we have an additional component of the magnetic field. Let's use Biot-Savart's Law again:
$dB = \frac{\mu_0}{4\pi} \frac{id\vec{l} \times \hat{r}}{r^2}$

In this case, we cannot disregard the cross-product. Using the angle between the differential length and radius vector 'θ' (in the diagram), we can represent the cross-product as cosθ. However, this would make integrating difficult. Using a right triangle, we can use the angle formed at the top 'φ', and represent this as sinφ.

$dB = \frac{\mu_0}{4\pi} \frac{id\vec{l} sin\theta}{r^2}$

Using the diagram, if 'z' is the point's height from the center:

$r = \sqrt{z^2 + R^2 }\\\\sin\phi = \frac{R}{\sqrt{z^2 + R^2}}$

Substituting this into our expression:
$dB = \frac{\mu_0}{4\pi} \frac{id\vec{l}}{(\sqrt{z^2 + R^2})^2} }(\frac{R}{\sqrt{z^2 + R^2}})\\\\dB = \frac{\mu_0}{4\pi} \frac{iRd\vec{l}}{(z^2 + R^2)^\frac{3}{2}} }$

Now, the only thing that isn't constant is the differential length (replace with ds). We will integrate along the entire circle again:
$B = \frac{\mu_0 iR}{4\pi (z^2 + R^2)^\frac{3}{2}}} \int\limits^{2\pi R}_0, ds$

Evaluate:
$B = \frac{\mu_0 iR}{4\pi (z^2 + R^2)^\frac{3}{2}}} (2\pi R)\\\\B = \frac{\mu_0 iR^2}{2 (z^2 + R^2)^\frac{3}{2}}}$

Multiplying by the number of loops:
$B_T= \frac{\mu_0 N iR^2}{2 (z^2 + R^2)^\frac{3}{2}}}$

Plug in the given values:
$B_T= \frac{(4\pi *10^{-7}) (470) (0.460)(0.0215)^2}{2 ((0.095)^2 + (0.0215)^2)^\frac{3}{2}}} \\\\ = 0.00006795 = \boxed{67.952 \mu T}$

5 0

1 year ago

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