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Leni [432]
4 years ago
14

1.When you give one set of washers a downward push, does it move as easily as the other set? Does it stop before it reaches the

floor? How do you explain this behavior?
Physics
1 answer:
Vlad1618 [11]4 years ago
5 0

Answer:No, it doesn't move easily downward because it will try to resist the movement ,due to a resistance force of inertia that it possess at rest.

Explanation:when an object has higher or larger mass it tends to resist any motion given to it unlike the one with lower mass.

The larger the mass the more resistance force an object has.

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A 15 kg mass is moving at 7.50 meters per second on a horizontal, frictionless surface. What is the total work that must be done
sashaice [31]
Kinetic energy = (1/2) (mass) x (speed)²

At 7.5 m/s, the object's KE is (1/2) (7.5) (7.5)² = 210.9375 joules

At 11.5 m/s, the object's KE is (1/2) (7.5) (11.5)² = 495.9375 joules

The additional energy needed to speed the object up from 7.5 m/s
to 11.5 m/s is (495.9375 - 210.9375) = <em>285 joules</em>.

That energy has to come from somewhere. Without friction, that's exactly
the amount of work that must be done to the object in order to raise its
speed by that much.
8 0
3 years ago
Write the following as powers of ten with one figure before the decimal point:
vodka [1.7K]
........................z......
5 0
3 years ago
Which would you rather have generating electricity for your city: nuclear fission reactions (traditional nuclear power), nuclear
Arada [10]

Answer:

Fossil Combustion Reactions

Explanation:

It's more efficient (I'll edit later)

4 0
4 years ago
An applied force of 50 N is used to accelerate an object, that weighs 73 N, to the right across a frictional surface. The object
Hunter-Best [27]

Answer:

5.38 m/s^2

Explanation:

NET force causing the object to accelerate  =  50 -10 = 40 N

Mass of the object =  73 N / 9.81 m/s^2 = 7.44 kg

F = ma

40 = 7.44 * a         a = 5.38 m/s^2

6 0
2 years ago
S Problem Set<br> 2.) 6.4 x 109 nm to cm
anyanavicka [17]

Answer:

6.4\cdot 10^2 cm

Explanation:

First of all, let's convert from nanometres to metres, keeping in mind that

1 nm = 10^{-9} m

So we have:

6.4\cdot 10^9 nm \cdot 10^{-9} m/nm = 6.4 m

Now we can convert from metres to centimetres, keeping in mind that

1 m = 10^2 cm

So, we find:

6.4 m \cdot 10^2 cm/m = 6.4\cdot 10^2 cm

8 0
3 years ago
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