Answer:
6.32m/s
Explanation:
note:Now these calculations are based in the fact that acc. due to gravity is 10m/s²
okay so I'm thinking you think the speed of a body depends on the mass of the body also,umh... well it doesn't at all!
when two bodies of different masses fall from the same height,they fall at the same time( this is just to say)
now enough of the talking let solve....
so the ball was dropped .ie from rest to the ground through a distance of 2m,
the formula for calculating the distance if a body moving in a straight line is given by:
S=ut + ½at² where u is initial velocity, a is acceleration ( of the body or due to gravity, but since its falling freely under the influence of gravity its " we use the acceleration due to gravity ,which is 10m/s²) and t is the time taken to cover the distance.
from our question the ball was dropped from rest thus its u is 0 therefore we use this equation to find the time it took to touch ground (S=½at²)
solving ....
we get t to be 0.632s
to find the speed we substitute t in the equation below:
V=u+at ,but since u=0
V=at =10•0.632=6.32m/s
therefore the speed the body uses to strike the ground is 6.32m/s
Answer:
2.47 m
Explanation:
Let's calculate first the time it takes for the ball to cover the horizontal distance that separates the starting point from the crossbar of d = 52 m.
The horizontal velocity of the ball is constant:

and the time taken to cover the horizontal distance d is

So this is the time the ball takes to reach the horizontal position of the crossbar.
The vertical position of the ball at time t is given by

where
is the initial vertical velocity
g = 9.8 m/s^2 is the acceleration of gravity
And substituting t = 2.56 s, we find the vertical position of the ball when it is above the crossbar:

The height of the crossbar is h = 3.05 m, so the ball passes

above the crossbar.
An airplane is flying at a constant speed in a positive direction. It slows down when it approaches the airport where it's going to land. this is an example of negative acceleration (D).
Answer:
A) coil A
Explanation:
According to Faraday, Induced emf is given as;
E.M.F = ΔФ/t
ΔФ = BACosθ
where;
ΔФ is change in magnetic flux
θ is the angle between the magnetic field, B, and the normal to the loop of area A
A is the area of the loop
B is the magnetic field
From the equation above, induced emf depends on the strength of the magnetic field.
Both coils have the same area and are oriented at right angles to the field.
Coil A has a magnetic field strength of 10-T which is greater than 1 T of coil B, thus, coil A will have a greater emf induced in it.