Either 175 N or 157 N depending upon how the value of 48° was measured from.
You didn't mention if the angle of 48° is from the lug wrench itself, or if it's from the normal to the lug wrench. So I'll solve for both cases and you'll need to select the desired answer.
Since we need a torque of 55 N·m to loosen the nut and our lug wrench is 0.47 m long, that means that we need 55 N·m / 0.47 m = 117 N of usefully applied force in order to loosen the nut. This figure will be used for both possible angles.
Ideally, the force will have a 0° degree difference from the normal and 100% of the force will be usefully applied. Any value greater than 0° will have the exerted force reduced by the cosine of the angle from the normal. Hence the term "cosine loss".
If the angle of 48° is from the normal to the lug wrench, the usefully applied power will be:
U = F*cos(48)
where
U = Useful force
F = Force applied
So solving for F and calculating gives:
U = F*cos(48)
U/cos(48) = F
117 N/0.669130606 = F
174.8537563 N = F
So 175 Newtons of force is required in this situation.
If the 48° is from the lug wrench itself, that means that the force is 90° - 48° = 42° from the normal. So doing the calculation again (this time from where we started plugging in values) we get
U/cos(42) = F
117/0.743144825 = F
157.4390294 = F
Or 157 Newtons is required for this case.
Kinetic Energy = (1/2) (mass) (speed)
First runner: KE = (1/2) (45kg) (49 m/s) = 1,102.5 Joules
Second runner: KE = (1/2) (93kg) (9 m/s) = 418.5 Joules
The <em>first runner </em><em>has 163</em>% more kinetic energy than the second runner has.
Work done = force * distance
work done = 200 * 20
work done = 4000J
Earthquake S - Waves are examples of transverse waves. The correct option among all the options that are given in the question is the second option. Other good examples of transverse waves are an oscillating string and light waves. A wave is a kind of disturbance that or an oscillation that travels through space.
A billiard ball collides with a stationary identical billiard ball to make it move. If the collision is perfectly elastic, the first ball comes to rest after collision.
<h3>Why does the first ball comes to rest after collision ?</h3>
Let m be the mass of the two identical balls.
u1 = velocity before the collision of ball 1
u2 = 0 = velocity of second ball that is at rest
v1 and v2 are the velocities of the balls after the collision.
From the conservation of momentum,
∴ mu1 + mu2 = mv1 + mv2
∴ mu1 = mv1 + mv2
∴ u1 = v1 + v2
In an elastic collision, the kinetic energy of the system before and after collision remains same.
∴ 
∴ 
∴ 
₁
₂ = 0
- It is impossible for the mass to be zero.
- Because the second ball moves, velocity v2 cannot be zero.
- As a result, the velocity of the first ball, v1, is zero, indicating that it comes to rest after collision.
<h3>What is collision ?</h3>
An elastic collision is a collision between two bodies in which the total kinetic energy of the two bodies remains constant. There is no net transfer of kinetic energy into other forms such as heat, noise, or potential energy in an ideal, fully elastic collision.
Can learn more about elastic collision from brainly.com/question/12644900
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