All categories

2 years ago

A bike with an original price of $90 is discounted 40%. What is the sale price?

Mathematics

2 answers:

Mila [183]2 years ago

5 0

So you do $90 times .40 because 40%=.40 then next you set up your problem

90x.40=36

In total the sales price is $36

sasho [114]2 years ago

4 0

Answer:

$36!

good luck

You might be interested in

c. Debbie and Jan are both in the 28% tax bracket. Since the interest is deductible, how much would Debbie and Jan each save in

alisha [4.7K]

Step-by-step explanation:

Let's assume Debbie paid $1700 in interest, while Jan paid $9000.

Debbie Saves = $1700* 0.28

Jan Saves = $9000 * 0.28

Debbie Saves $476 in taxes

Jan Saves $2520 in taxes

7 0

3 years ago

for events A and B, P(A)= 3/14 and P(B)= 1/5. Also, P(A and B)= 3/65. Are A and B independent events?

Lady_Fox [76]

No, A and B are not independent events

Step-by-step explanation:

Let us study the meaning independent probability

Two events are independent if the result of the second event is not affected by the result of the first event
If A and B are independent events, the probability of both events is the product of the probabilities of the both events P (A and B) = P(A) · P(B)

∵ P(A) = $\frac{3}{14}$

∵ P(B) = $\frac{1}{5}$

∴ P(A) . P(B) = $\frac{3}{14}$ × $\frac{1}{5}$

∴ P(A) . P(B) = $\frac{3(1)}{14(5)}$

∴ P(A) . P(B) = $\frac{3}{70}$

∵ P(A and B) = $\frac{3}{65}$

∵ P(A) . P(B) = $\frac{3}{70}$

- The two answers are not equal

∴ P (A and B) ≠ P(A) · P(B)

- In independent events P (A and B) = P(A) · P(B)

∴ A and B are not independent events

No, A and B are not independent events

Learn more:

You can learn more about probability in brainly.com/question/13053309

#LearnwithBrainly

5 0

3 years ago

Kyle bought a ticket to see his favorite basketball team playing at home. His seat is in the terrace section, about 178 feet fro

maw [93]

Answer:

128.6

Step-by-step explanation:

I just did the math

3 0

2 years ago

HD Straight line graphs

Taya2010 [7]

Answer:

The equation of the sraight line 3x- y+ 6 =0

Step-by-step explanation:

Explanation:-

Given that the gradient of the function

|gradf| = 3 and point (-1,3)

Given that the slope of the line

m = 3

The equation of the straight line passing through the point(-1,3) and slope m =3

$y -y_{1} = m(x-x_{1} )$

y-3 = 3(x-(-1))

y-3 = 3x+3

3x +3-y+3=0

3x- y+ 6 =0

Final answer:-

The equation of the sraight line 3x- y+ 6 =0

5 0

2 years ago

A bag contains 40 marbles. The probability of selecting a red marble at random is 1/5. How many red marbles are in the bag?

goblinko [34]

Answer:

8 red marbles.

Step-by-step explanation:

All together we have 40 marbles. The fraction of marbles that are red is 1/5 which means that we should divide the total number of marbles, which is 40 by the denominator ( Bottom number of fraction ) 5 so that we get the number of groups that have 1 red marble in them. In this case we have 8 groups.

40/5=8

You always divide by the denominator ( Bottom number of fraction ) first and then you multiply your answer by the numerator ( Top number of fraction ) .

If each group has 1 red marble in it and we have 8 groups, it means that we have 8 red marbles in the bag.

1 * 8 = 8 red marbles in the bag

If the numerator (number above the fraction line) was more than one, then this would mean that we have more than 1 marble in each group of marbles.

Example:

If we had 3/5 we would have 3 marbles in each group of marbles. This means that instead of doing 1 * 8 we would have to do 3 * 8 = 24. We would have 24 red marbles in the bag.

Easy and quick way if you do not need the explanation:

Another way we could do this is by simply multiplying the fraction ( 1/5 ) by the total number of marbles ( 40 ). This would still give us an answer of 8 red marbles in the bag. 40/5=8, 8*1=8

7 0

3 years ago