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Mila [183]
4 years ago
9

Derive the velocity of an electron in a hydrogen atom using Bohr's model. The electron has a mass of m, charge of (-e) and an or

bit radius of r. Make sure you explain all the teps including quantization of angular momentum to get full credits
Physics
1 answer:
Ahat [919]4 years ago
4 0

Answer:

v=\frac{Ze^2}{2 \epsilon_0\times n\times h}

v=\frac {2.185\times 10^6}{n}\ m/s

Explanation:

According to Bohr's Theory,

The force of attraction acting between the electron and the nucleus is equal to the centrifugal force acting on the electron.

Thus,

\frac{Ze^2}{4\pi \epsilon_0 r^2}=m_e\frac{v^2}{r} ......1

Where, Z is the atomic number or the number of protons

r is the atomic radius

v is the velocity of the electron

m_e is the mass of the electron

Also,

Accoriding to Bohr, the angular momentum is quantized. He states that the angular momemtum is equal to the integral multiple of \frac {h}{2\times \pi}.

m_e vr=n\times \frac {h}{2\times \pi} ....2

solving r from equation 2, we get that:

r=n\times \frac {h}{2\times \pi\times m_e v}

Putting in 1 , we get that:

v=\frac{Ze^2}{2 \epsilon_0\times n\times h}

Applying values for hydrogen atom,

Z = 1

Mass of the electron (m_e) is 9.1093×10⁻³¹ kg

Charge of electron (e) is 1.60217662 × 10⁻¹⁹ C

\epsilon_0 = 8.854×10⁻¹² C² N⁻¹ m⁻²

h is Plank's constant having value = 6.626×10⁻³⁴ m² kg / s

We get that:

v=\frac {2.185\times 10^6}{n}\ m/s

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If i explain with formula

Work done (J) = Energy transferred (J)

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Ancient Greek philosophers spent lots of time thinking about science and imaging explanations for the natural world. What part o
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Answer:

Testing

Explanation:

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The main process they didn't/couldn't do was the testing. They could never test certain theories because they did not have the means to.

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3 years ago
If an object is moving eastward and slowing down, then the direction of its acceleration vector is
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8 0
3 years ago
A car is traveling at 52.4 km/h on a flat
natali 33 [55]
Work is equal to a force over a distance and is equal to the change in kinetic energy, so
<span>
- Fd=ΔKE
</span> <span>−Fd=1/2m<span>v22</span>−1/2m<span>v21</span></span>
<span>d=(1/2m<span>v22</span>−1/2m<span>v21</span>)/−F

</span> We know that Ffric=kFnatural and Fnatural=mg so:

<span>d=(1/2m<span>v22</span>−1/2m<span>v21</span>)/−(k∗mg)</span><span>d=(−1/2<span>v21</span>)/−(k∗g)

</span><span>d=(−1/2×(14.6m/s<span>)2</span>)/−(0.137×9.8m/s)

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8 0
3 years ago
- An experienced pilot can keep an engineless glider aircraft aloft for hours by
Annette [7]

Answer:

F<em>lift=</em>5.00×10³ N

F<em>horizontal</em>=0.50×10³ N

F<em>g</em>=4.80×10³ N

Explanation:

A free-body diagram of the glider.

pretend this is a number line

^

|  F<em>lift</em>

|  

|

|---->F<em>horizontal</em>

|

| F<em>g</em>

|

∨

hope this helps! :)

6 0
3 years ago
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