Answer:
0.087 m
Explanation:
Length of the rod, L = 1.5 m
Let the mass of the rod is m and d is the distance between the pivot point and the centre of mass.
time period, T = 3 s
the formula for the time period of the pendulum is given by
.... (1)
where, I is the moment of inertia of the rod about the pivot point and g is the acceleration due to gravity.
Moment of inertia of the rod about the centre of mass, Ic = mL²/12
By using the parallel axis theorem, the moment of inertia of the rod about the pivot is
I = Ic + md²

Substituting the values in equation (1)


12d² -26.84 d + 2.25 = 0


d = 2.15 m , 0.087 m
d cannot be more than L/2, so the value of d is 0.087 m.
Thus, the distance between the pivot and the centre of mass of the rod is 0.087 m.
Answer:
A
Explanation:
Constant speed (without change in direction) is not accelerating. If you are slowing down, speeding up, or changing direction, you are accelerating
Explanation:
They will repel, meaning that they are made of an electrical conductor.
Answer:
0.777m
Explanation:
The sound wave has a wavelength of 0.773m.
Explanation:
To solve this problem we have to use the wave equation that is given below:
We know the frequency and the velocity, both of which have good units. All we have to do is rearrange the equation and solve for
λ
:
λ
=
v
f
Let's plug in our given values and see what we get!
λ
=
340
m
s
440
s
−
1
λ
=
0.773
m
Hope this helps, Mark as brainliest if u want
Answer:
4 Ohms
Explanation
(This is seriously not as hard as it looks :)
You only need two types of calculations:
- replace two resistances, say, R1 and R2, connected in a series by a single one R. In this case the new R is a sum of the two:

- replace two resistances that are connected in parallel. In that case:

I am attaching a drawing showing the process of stepwise replacement of two resistances at a time (am using rectangles to represent a resistance). The left-most image shows the starting point, just a little bit "warped" to see it better. The two resistances (6 Ohm next to each other) are in parallel and are replaced by a single resistance (3 Ohm, see formula above) in the top middle image. Next, the two resistances (9 and 3 Ohm) are nicely in series, so they can be replaced by their sum, which is what happened going to the top right image. Finally we have two resistances in parallel and they can be replaced by a single, final, resistance as shown in the bottom right image. That (4 Ohms) is the <em>equivalent resistance</em> of the original circuit.
Using these two transformations you will be able to solve step by step any problem like this, no matter how complex.