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PolarNik [594]
3 years ago
7

Random Online 1) Using your choice of C# or Java (NOT in Pseudocode), write an interface IMammal. The IMammal contains a method

mammalType(). Then write a concrete class Dog that inherits the IMammal interface and includes the unimplemented mammalType() method with at least one PRINT statement, with whatever you like to display. You don’t need to include the main() method.
Engineering
1 answer:
MAVERICK [17]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

IMammal:

namespace AnimalInterfaceTest

{

   interface IMammal

   {

       void mammalType();

   }

}

Dog Class:

using System;

namespace AnimalInterfaceTest

{

   class Dog : IMammal

   {

       public void mammalType()

       {

           Console.WriteLine("Mammal type is Dog.");

       }

   }

}

===============main program=================

using System;

namespace AnimalInterfaceTest

{

   class Program

   {

       static void Main(string[] args)

       {

           IMammal m1 = new Dog();

           Dog dog = new Dog();

           m1.mammalType();

           dog.mammalType();

           Console.ReadLine();

       }

   }

}

Explanation:

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Estimate the energy (head) loss a short length of a pipe conveying 300 litres of water per second and suddenly enlarging from a
Ludmilka [50]

Known :

Q = 300 L/s = 0.3 m³/s

D1 = 350 mm = 0.35 m

D2 = 700 mm = 0.7 m

g = 9.81 m/s²

Solution :

A1 = πD1² / 4 = π(0.35²) / 4 = 0.096 m²

A2 = πD2² / 4 = π(0.7²) / 4 = 0.385 m²

hL = (kL / 2g) • (U1² - U2²)

hL = (kL / 2g) • Q² (1/A1² - 1/A2²)

hL = (1 / 2(9.81)) • (0.3²) • (1/(0.096²) - 1/(0.385²))

hL = 0.467 m

5 0
3 years ago
Which is/are not a mechanism commonly associated with tool wear (mark all that apply)?a. Adhesion b. Attrition c. Abrasion d. Co
butalik [34]

Answer: d)Coercion

Explanation:Tool wear is defined as the situation when the cutting tool is subjected to the regular process of cutting metal then they tend to wear because of the continuous action of cutting and facing stresses and pressure . The mechanism that does not happen during this process are coercion that means the process of exerting forces on any material forcefully against the will or need. Therefore, adhesion,attrition and abrasion are the process of tool wear .So the correct option is (d)

5 0
3 years ago
The flow rate in the pipe system below is 0.05 m3/s. The pressure at point 1 is measured to be 260 kPa. Point 1 is 0.60 m higher
DedPeter [7]

Answer:

Explanation:

The rate of flow in the pipe system in Figure P4.5.2 is 0.05 m3/s. The pressure at point 1 is measured to be 260 kPa. All the pipes are galvanized iron with roughness value of 0.15 mm. Determine the pressure at point 2. Take the loss coefficient for the sudden contraction as 0.05 and v = 1.141 × 10−6 m2/s.

The answer to the above question is

The pressure at point 2 = 75.959 kPa

Explanation:

Bernoulli's equation with losses gives

hL = z₁ - z₃ +(P₁-P₃)/(ρ×g) + (v₁²-v₃²)/(2×g)

Between points 1 and 2, z₁ = z₃ + 0.6 m therefore

hL = 0.6 m +(P₁-P₂)/(ρ×g) + (v₁²-v₃²)/(2×g)

hL = (f₁×L₁×v₁²)/(D₁×2×g) + (f₂×L₂×v₂²)/(D₂×2×g) + (f₃×L₃×v₃²)/(D₃×2×g) + k×V₃₂/(2×g) = 0.6 +(P₁-P₂)/(ρ×g) + (v₁²-v₃²)/(2×g)

But v = Q/A

or  since A = π×D²/4 we have

A₁ = 1.77×10-2 m² , A₂ = 5.73×10-2 m², A₃ = 3.8×10-2 m²  

Therefore from v = Q/A we have v₁ = 2.83 m/s v₂ = 0.87 m/s and v₃  = 1.315 m/s  from there we find the friction coefficient from Moody Diagram as follows

ε = \frac{Roughness _. value}{ Diameter} Which gives

the friction coefficients as f₁ = 0.02, f₂ = 0.017 and f₃ =0.0175

Substituting he above values into the h_{l} equation we get h_{l} = 19.761 m

Combined head loss = 19.761 m

Hence 19.743 m  = 0.6 m +(260 kPa-P₃)/(ρ×9.81) + (6.276)/(2×9.81)

or 260 kPa-18.82 m × 9.81 m/s²×ρ=  P₃

Where ρ = density of water, we have

260000 Pa - 18.82 m×9.81 m/s²×997 kg/m³ = 75958.598 kg/m·s² = 75.959 kPa

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Explanation:

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Answer:

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