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WITCHER [35]
3 years ago
7

In the circuit given below, R1 = 17 kΩ, R2 = 74 kΩ, and R3 = 5 MΩ. Calculate the gain 1formula58.mml when the switch is in posit

ion 1, position 2, and position 3.
A) The gain 1formula58.mml at the position 1 is _____.
B) The gain 1formula58.mml at the position 2 is _____.
C) The gain 1formula58.mml at the position 3 is _____.
Engineering
1 answer:
Elenna [48]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:a

a) Vo/Vi = - 3.4

b) Vo/Vi = - 14.8

c) Vo/Vi = - 1000

Explanation:

a)

R1 = 17kΩ

for ideal op-amp

Va≈Vb=0 so Va=0

(Va - Vi)/5kΩ + (Va -Vo)/17kΩ = 0

sin we know Va≈Vb=0

so

-Vi/5kΩ + -Vo/17kΩ = 0

Vo/Vi = - 17k/5k

Vo/Vi = -3.4

║Vo/Vi ║ = 3.4    ( negative sign phase inversion)

b)

R2 = 74kΩ

for ideal op-amp

Va≈Vb=0 so Va=0

so

(Va-Vi)/5kΩ + (Va-Vo)74kΩ = 0

-Vi/5kΩ + -Vo/74kΩ = 0

Vo/Vi = - 74kΩ/5kΩ

Vo/Vi = - 14.8

║Vo/Vi ║ = 14.8  ( negative sign phase inversion)

c)

Also for ideal op-amp

Va≈Vb=0 so Va=0

Now for position 3 we apply nodal analysis we got at position 1

(Va - Vi)/5kΩ + (Va - Vo)/5000kΩ = 0           ( 5MΩ = 5000kΩ )

so

-Vi/5kΩ + -Vo/5000kΩ = 0

Vo/Vi = - 5000kΩ/5kΩ

Vo/Vi = - 1000

║Vo/Vi ║ = 1000  ( negative sign phase inversion)

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Since the Reynolds number is less than 2300, the flow is laminar and the assumption is correct.

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