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butalik [34]
2 years ago
13

Simplify the expression below: 313 + 12 =

Engineering
2 answers:
andrey2020 [161]2 years ago
5 0
313+12=325

Hope this helps you, have a good day/night!
Sati [7]2 years ago
3 0

ANSWER :

325

Explanation:

313 + 12 = 325

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A 500-km, 500-kV, 60-Hz, uncompensated three-phase line has a positivesequence series impedance. z = 5 0.03 1 + j 0.35 V/km and
Anni [7]

Answer:

A) 282.34 - j 12.08 Ω

B) 0.0266 + j 0.621 / unit

C)

A = 0.812 < 1.09° per unit

B =  164.6 < 85.42°Ω  

C =  2.061 * 10^-3 < 90.32° s

D =  0.812 < 1.09° per unit

Explanation:

Given data :

Z ( impedance ) = 0.03 i  + j 0.35 Ω/km

positive sequence shunt admittance ( Y ) = j4.4*10^-6 S/km

A) calculate Zc

Zc = \sqrt{\frac{z}{y} }  =  \sqrt{\frac{0.03 i  + j 0.35}{j4.4*10^-6 } }    

    = \sqrt{79837.128< 4.899^o}   =  282.6 < -2.45°

hence Zc = 282.34 - j 12.08 Ω

B) Calculate  gl

gl = \sqrt{zy} * d  

 d = 500

 z = 0.03 i  + j 0.35

 y = j4.4*10^-6 S/km

gl =  \sqrt{0.03 i  + j 0.35*  j4.4*10^-6}  * 500

   = \sqrt{1.5456*10^{-6} < 175.1^0} * 500

   = 0.622 < 87.55 °

gl = 0.0266 + j 0.621 / unit

C) exact ABCD parameters for this line

A = cos h (gl) . per unit  =  0.812 < 1.09° per unit ( as calculated )

B = Zc sin h (gl) Ω  = 164.6 < 85.42°Ω  ( as calculated )

C = 1/Zc  sin h (gl) s  =  2.061 * 10^-3 < 90.32° s ( as calculated )

D = cos h (gl) . per unit = 0.812 < 1.09° per unit ( as calculated )

where :  cos h (gl)  = \frac{e^{gl} + e^{-gl}  }{2}

             sin h (gl) = \frac{e^{gl}-e^{-gl}  }{2}

     

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Read 2 more answers
X cotx expansion using maclaurins theorem.
Lemur [1.5K]

It is to be noted that it is impossible to find the Maclaurin Expansion for F(x) = cotx.

<h3>What is Maclaurin Expansion?</h3>

The Maclaurin Expansion is a Taylor series that has been expanded around the reference point zero and has the formula f(x)=f(0)+f′. (0) 1! x+f″ (0) 2! x2+⋯+f[n](0)n!

<h3>What is the explanation for the above?</h3>

as indicated above, the Maclaurin infinite series expansion is given as:

F(x)=f(0)+f′. (0) 1! x+f″ (0) 2! x2+⋯+f[n](0)n!

If F(0) = Cot 0

F(0) = ∝ = 1/0

This is not definitive,

Hence, it is impossible to find the Maclaurin infinite series expansion for F(x) = cotx.

Learn more about Maclaurin Expansion at;
brainly.com/question/7846182
#SPJ1

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