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nekit [7.7K]
4 years ago
11

A force does work on an object if a component of the force is

Physics
1 answer:
IrinaK [193]4 years ago
7 0

Answer:

A force does work on an object if a component of the force is parallel to the displacement of the object.

Explanation:

Work, a measurement of energy is said to be done when a force applied to an object results in the movement of that object to a certain distance and direction. Force is the act of push or pulls occurs on an object as a result of the interaction between that object with another one and displacement is the distance and direction covered by that object as a result of the force applied on it.

The work done (W) by a constant force (F) is equal to the product of the force in the direction of displacement of the object and the distance (d) moved by the object i.e., W = F * d.

The angle between the displacement and the force is θ, then the work done, W = Fd cos θ  ........ (1)

Positive work - Force acts in the same direction with respect to the displacement of the object. Here, θ is zero, so cos θ i.e., cos 0 is 1. Therefore, from the equation (1), W = Fd (i.e., work done by the force is positive).

Negative work - Force acts in the opposite direction with respect to the displacement of the object.  Here, θ is 180°, so cos θ i.e., cos 180° is -1. Therefore, from the equation (1), W = -Fd (i.e., work done by the force is negative).

If a force is applied to an object and it does not move, then the work done is zero i.e., W = F * 0 = 0. Also, if the force and displacement are at right angle to each other, then θ is 90°. Therefore, from the equation (1), W = 0 since cos 90° is zero.

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Answer: exercise doing something you like. for example if you like dancing incorporate dancing in your workouts so you will be more likely to do it regularly

Explanation:

4 0
3 years ago
A rotating object has an angular acceleration of α = 0 rad/s2. Which one or more of the following three statements is consistent
Murrr4er [49]

Answer:

A,B and C

Explanation:

Statement A  

At all times, angular velocity is \omega = 0\,{\rm{rad/s}  

Angular acceleration is the rate of change in angular velocity with respect to time.  

Angular velocity and angular acceleration are related by  

{\omega _{\rm{f}}} = {\omega _{\rm{i}}} + \alpha t

Which when re-arranged becomes  

\alpha = \frac{{{\omega _{\rm{f}}} - {\omega _{\rm{i}}}}}{t}

There’s no change in angular velocity anytime when the angular velocity is \omega = 0\,{\rm{rad/s}}

The equation can be modified as follows:  

\begin{array}{c}\\\alpha = \frac{{0\,{\rm{rad/s}} - 0\,{\rm{rad/s}}}}{t}\\\\ = 0\\\end{array}

Therefore, the angular acceleration becomes zero hence statement A is valid.  

Statement B  

Angular acceleration is the rate of change in angular velocity with respect to time.  

Angular velocity and angular acceleration are related by  

{\omega _{\rm{f}}} = {\omega _{\rm{i}}} + \alpha t

Which when re-arranged becomes  

\alpha = \frac{{{\omega _{\rm{f}}} - {\omega _{\rm{i}}}}}{t}

There’s no change in angular velocity anytime when the angular velocity is \omega = 10\,{\rm{rad/s}}.The final and initial velocities remain the same.  

The equation can be modified as follows:  

\begin{array}{c}\\\alpha = \frac{{10\,{\rm{rad/s}} - 10\,{\rm{rad/s}}}}{t}\\\\ = 0\\\end{array}

Therefore, the angular acceleration becomes zero and statement B is valid  

Statement C  

Angular velocity is defined as the change in the angular position with respect to time.  

Angular velocity and angular displacement are related by  

\theta = \omega t

Which can also be modified as:  

{\theta _{\rm{f}}} - {\theta _{\rm{i}}}

Note that the final position is {\theta _{\rm{f}}}and initial position is {\theta _{\rm{i}}}

Modifying the equation to find the angular velocity we obtain  

\omega = \frac{{{\theta _{\rm{f}}} - {\theta _{\rm{i}}}}}{t}

When the angular displacement has the same value at all times, the equation becomes  

\begin{array}{c}\\\omega = \frac{{{\theta _{\rm{i}}} - {\theta _{\rm{i}}}}}{t}\\\\ = 0\\\end{array}

The angular velocity becomes zero.  

Angular acceleration and angular velocity are related by  

{\omega _{\rm{f}}} = {\omega _{\rm{i}}} + \alpha t

The expression above can be rearranged as follows:  

\alpha = \frac{{{\omega _{\rm{f}}} - {\omega _{\rm{i}}}}}{t}

At all times, the angular velocity is \omega = 0\,{\rm{rad/s}} hence initial and final velocities remain the same  

We obtain  

\begin{array}{c}\\\alpha = \frac{{0\,{\rm{rad/s}} - 0\,{\rm{rad/s}}}}{t}\\\\ = 0\\\end{array}

Therefore, the angular acceleration becomes zero and statement C is valid.  

Therefore, statements A,B and C are consistent .

4 0
4 years ago
Application - You have two objects that you want to push the same distance (5 meters) across the floor. The objects have differe
Mamont248 [21]

I see you're in Middle School, so I've got a hunch that they want you
to say "the dresser because it has more mass".  But that's a poor
answer, to a poor question.

The fact is that there's no way to tell.

The force it takes to move either object across the floor does NOT really
depend on just its mass.  It depends on both the object's mass AND the
friction between the object and the floor.  And THAT depends on the shape
of the feet where they touch the floor, and what kind of material the feet and
the floor are made of.

So it seems to me that we really don't have enough information to answer
the question with.

But again, I suspect that the answer they want is "the dresser because
it has more mass".

8 0
3 years ago
If you traveled 50m/s for 60 seconds, how far did you travel? Remember speed=distance/time
dlinn [17]

Answer:

3,000 m

Explanation:

speed = distance/time

distance = speed * time

= 50 * 60

= 3000 m

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