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PilotLPTM [1.2K]
3 years ago
6

Liquid sodium can be used as a heat transfer fluid in some nuclear reactors due to its high thermal conductivity and low neutron

absorptivity. Its vapor pressure is 40.0 torr at 633 degree C and an enthalpy of vaporization of 1.00x10^2 kJ/mol. To what temperature can it be heated if a maximum of 500 torr pressure is allowed in the system?
Physics
1 answer:
Leya [2.2K]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

1119.1 K

Explanation:

From Clausius-Clapeyron equation:

\frac{dP}{dT}=Δ\frac{h_{v} }{R} (\frac{1}{T^{2} } )dT

The equation may be integrated considering the enthalpy of vaporization constant, and its result is:

ln(\frac{P_{2} }{P_{1} } )=-Δ\frac{h_{v} }{R}*(\frac{1}{T_{2} }-\frac{1}{T_{1} })

Isolating the temperature T_{2}

T_{2}=\frac{1}{\frac{-R}{dhv}*ln(\frac{P_{2} }{P_{1}}) +\frac{1}{T_{1}} }

T_{2}=\frac{1}{\frac{-8.314}{1.00*10^5}*ln(\frac{500}{40}) +\frac{1}{906.15}}

T_{2}=1119.1K

Note: Remember to change the units of the enthalpy vaporization to J/mol; and the temperatures must be in Kelvin units.

There is a format mistake with the enthalpy of vaporization, each 'Δ' correspond to that.

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Scientific models have two basic types. Please select the best answer from the choices provided T F
zubka84 [21]

Answer:

Scientific models have two basic types. FALSE.

Hoped I helped

3 0
3 years ago
Two particles are fixed to an x axis: particle 1 of charge q1 = 2.78 × 10-8 c at x = 15.0 cm and particle 2 of charge q2 = -3.24
Oksi-84 [34.3K]
Refer to the attached figure. Xp may not be between the particles but the reasoning is the same nonetheless.
At xp the electric field is the sum of both electric fields, remember that at a coordinate x for a particle placed at x' we have the electric field of a point charge (all of this on the x-axis of course):
E=\frac{1}{4\pi\varepsilon_0}\frac{q}{(x-x')^2}
Now At xp we have:
\frac{1}{4\pi\varepsilon_0}\frac{q_1}{(x_p-x_1)^2}-\frac{1}{4\pi\varepsilon_0}\frac{3.29q_1}{(x_p-x_2)^2}=0
\implies (x_p-x_1)^2=\frac{(x_p-x_2)^2}{3.29}\\
\implies(1-\frac{1}{3.29})x_p^2+2(\frac{x_2}{3.29}-x_1)x_p+x_1^2-\frac{x_2^2}{3.29}=0
Which is a second order equation, using the quadratic formula to solve for xp would give us:
xp=\frac{-(\frac{x_2}{3.29}-x_1)-\sqrt{(\frac{x_2}{3.29}-x_1)^2-(1-\frac{1}{3.29})(x_1^2-\frac{x_2^2}{3.29})}}{(1-\frac{1}{3.29})}
or
xp=\frac{-(\frac{x_2}{3.29}-x_1)+\sqrt{(\frac{x_2}{3.29}-x_1)^2-(1-\frac{1}{3.29})(x_1^2-\frac{x_2^2}{3.29})}}{(1-\frac{1}{3.29})}
Plug the relevant values to get both answers.
Now, let's comment on which of those answers is the right answer. It happens that BOTH are correct. This is simply explained by considring the following.

Let's place a possitive test charge on the system This charge feels a repulsive force due to q1 but an attractive force due to q2, if we place the charge somewhere to the left of q2 the attractive force of q2 will cancel the repulsive force of q1, this translates to a zero electric field at this x coordinate. The same could happen if we place the test charge at some point to the right of q1, hence we can have two possible locations in which the electric field is zero. The second image shows two possible locations for xp.

6 0
3 years ago
An electric ceiling fan is rotating about a fixed axis with an initial angular velocity magnitude of 0.220 rev/s . The magnitude
matrenka [14]

Answer:

1) The fan's angular velocity after 0.208 seconds is approximately 2.585 rad/s

2) The number of revolutions the blade has travelled in 0.208 s is approximately 0.066 revolutions

3) The tangential speed of a point on the tip of the blade at time t = 0.208 s is approximately 1.034 m/s

4) The magnitude of the tangential acceleration of a point on the tip of the blade at time t = 0.208 seconds is approximately 2.312 m/s²

Explanation:

The given parameters are;

The initial velocity of the fan, n = 0.220 rev/s

The magnitude of the angular acceleration = 0.920 rev/s²

The direction of the angular acceleration and the angular velocity = Clockwise

The diameter of the circle formed by the electric ceiling fan blades, D = 0.800 m

1) The initial angular velocity of the fan, ω₀ = 2·π × n = 2·π × 0.220 rev/s = 1.38230076758 rad/s

The angular acceleration of the fan, α = 2·π×0.920 rad/s² = 5.78053048261 rad/s²

The fan's angular velocity, 'ω', after a time t = 0.208 seconds has passed is given as follows;

ω = ω₀ + α·t

From which we have;

ω = 1.38230076758 rad/s + 5.78053048261 rad/s × 0.208 s = 2.58465110796 rad/s

The fan's angular velocity after 0.208 seconds is ω ≈ 2.585 rad/s

2) The number of revolutions the blade has travelled in the given time interval is given from the angle turned, 'θ', in the given time as follows;

θ = ω₀·t + 1/2·α·t²

θ = 1.38230076758 × 0.208 + 1/2 × 5.78053048261 × 0.208² = 0.41256299505 radians

2·π radians = 1 revolution

∴ 0.41256299505 radians = 0.41256299505 radian× 1 revolution/(2·π radian) = 0.06566144 revolution

The number of revolutions the blade has travelled in 0.208 s ≈ 0.066 revolutions

3) The tangential speed of a point on the tip of the blade at time t = 0.208 s is given as follows;

The tangential speed, v_t = ω × r = ω × D/2

At t = 0.208 s, ω = 2.58465110796 rad/s, therefore, we have;

v_t = ω × D/2 = 2.58465110796 × 0.800/2 = 1.0338604413

The tangential speed, v_t = 1.0338604413 m/s

The tangential speed ≈ 1.034 m/s

4)  The magnitude of the tangential acceleration of a point on the tip of the blade at time t = 0.208 seconds, 'a' is given as follows;

a = α × r = α × D/2

a = 5.78053048261 × 0.800/2 = 2.31221219304

The tangential acceleration, a ≈ 2.312 m/s²

4 0
3 years ago
What is the ratio of the intensities of an earthquake P wave passing through the Earth and detected at two points 14 km and 49 k
Molodets [167]

Answer:

\dfrac{I_1}{I_2}=12.25

Explanation:

r_1 = 14 km

r_2 = 49 km

Intensity of a wave is inversely proportional to distance

I\propto \dfrac{1}{r^2}

So,

\dfrac{I_1}{I_2}=\dfrac{r_2^2}{r_1^2}\\\Rightarrow \dfrac{I_1}{I_2}=\dfrac{49^2}{14^2}\\\Rightarrow \dfrac{I_1}{I_2}=12.25

The ratio of the intensities is \dfrac{I_1}{I_2}=12.25

6 0
3 years ago
Having difficulty finding the PE and KE for these values no mass is given. Does anyone know to go solve these?
Alexandra [31]

11) 1.04\cdot 10^7 J

12) 1.04\cdot 10^7 J

13) 50.0 m/s

14) 41.6 m/s

Explanation:

11)

The potential energy of an object is the energy possessed by the object due to its position relative to the ground. It is given by

PE=mgh

where

m is the mass of the object

g is the acceleration due to gravity

h is the height relative to the ground

Here in this problem, when the train is at the top, we have:

m = 8325 kg (mass of the train + riders)

g=9.8 m/s^2 (acceleration due to gravity)

h = 127 m (height of the train at the top)

Substituting,

PE=(8325)(9.8)(127)=1.04\cdot 10^7 J

12)

According to the law of conservation of energy, the total mechanical energy of the train must be conserved (in absence of friction). So we can write:

KE_t + PE_t = KE_b + PE_b

where

KE_t is the kinetic energy at the top

PE_t is the potential energy at the top

KE_b is the kinetic energy at the bottom

PE_b is the potential energy at the bottom

The kinetic energy is the energy due to motion; since the train is at rest at the top, we have

KE_t=0

Also, at the bottom the height is zero, so the potential energy is zero

PE_b=0

Therefore, we find:

KE_b=PE_t=1.04\cdot 10^7 J

13)

The kinetic energy of an object is the energy of the object due to its motion. Mathematically, it is given by

KE=\frac{1}{2}mv^2

where

m is the mass of the object

v is the speed of the object

From question 12), we know that the kinetic energy of the train at the bottom is

KE=1.04\cdot 10^7 J

We also know that the mass is

m = 8325 kg

Therefore, we can calculate the speed of the train at the bottom:

v=\sqrt{\frac{2KE}{m}}=\sqrt{\frac{2(1.04\cdot 10^7)}{8325}}=50.0 m/s

14)

At the top of the second hill, the total mechanical energy of the train is still conserved.

Therefore, we can write again:

KE_1 + PE_1 = KE_2 + PE_2

where

KE_1 is the kinetic energy at the top of the 1st hill

PE_1 is the potential energy at the top of the 1st hill

KE_2 is the kinetic energy at the top of the 2nd hill

PE_2 is the potential energy at the top of the 2nd hill

From the previous questions, we know that

KE_1=0

and

PE_1=1.04\cdot 10^7 J

The height of the second hill is

h = 39 m

So we can also find the potential energy at the second hill:

PE_2=mgh=(8325)(9.8)(39)=3.2\cdot 10^6 J

So, the kinetic energy at the second hill is

KE_2=PE_1-PE_2=1.04\cdot 10^7 - 3.2\cdot 10^6 =7.2\cdot 10^6 J

And so, the speed is

v=\sqrt{\frac{2KE_2}{m}}=\sqrt{\frac{2(7.2\cdot 10^6)}{8325}}=41.6 m/s

4 0
3 years ago
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