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zmey [24]
3 years ago
7

Normalize the equations

Physics
1 answer:
tatyana61 [14]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

Solution is in explanation

Explanation:

part a)

For normalization we have

\int_{0}^{\infty }f(x)dx=1\\\\\therefore \int_{0}^{\infty }ae^{-kx}dx=1\\\\\Rightarrow a\int_{0}^{\infty }e^{-kx}dx=1\\\\\frac{a}{-k}[\frac{1}{e^{kx}}]_{0}^{\infty }=1\\\\\frac{a}{-k}[0-1]=1\\\\\therefore a=k

Part b)

\int_{0}^{L }f(x)dx=1\\\\\therefore Re(\int_{0}^{L }ae^{-ikx}dx)=1\\\\\Rightarrow Re(a\int_{0}^{L }e^{-ikx}dx)=1\\\\\therefore Re(\frac{a}{-ik}[\frac{1}{e^{ikx}}]_{0}^{L})=1\\\\\Rightarrow Re(\frac{a}{-ik}(e^{-ikL}-1))=1\\\\\frac{a}{k}Re(\frac{1}{-i}(cos(-kL)+isin(-kL)-1))=1

\frac{a}{k}Re(\frac{1}{-i}(cos(-kL)+isin(-kL)-1))=1\\\\\frac{a}{k}Re(icos(-kL)+sin(kL)+\frac{1}{i})=1\\\\\frac{a}{k}sin(kL)=1\\\\a=\frac{k}{sin(kL)}

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