V = 3.14(4^2) × 4
V = 3.14(16) × 4
V = 50.24 × 4
V = 200.96
According to this, answer is E.
The solution to –2(8x – 4) < 2x + 5 is x > 1/6
<h3>How to solve the inequality?</h3>
The expression is given as:
–2(8x – 4) < 2x + 5
Expand
-16x + 8 < 2x + 5
Evaluate the like terms
-18x < -3
Divide both sides by -18
x > 1/6
Hence, the solution to –2(8x – 4) < 2x + 5 is x > 1/6
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Amount in compound interest = p(1 + r/t)^nt where p is the initial
deposit, r = rate, t = number of compunding in a period and n = period.
Here,
Amount after t years = 103(1.02)^t
i.e. 1 + r = 1.02
r = 1.02 - 1 = 0.02
Therefore, annual interest rate = 0.02 x 100 = 2%
18 / 44 = 9 / 22
There are 44 nuts in the bag, and 18 of them are peanuts. If you simplify the fraction, you get 9/22 chance of getting a peanut.