Answer:
D.
Explanation:
To solve the exercise it is necessary to apply the concepts related to the Magnetic Field described by Faraday.
The magnetic field is given by the equation:
Where,
Permeability constant
d = diameter
I = Current
For the given problem we have a change in the diameter, twice that of the initial experiment, therefore we define that:
The ratio of change between the two is given by:
Therefore the correct answer is D.
Answer:
y = 54.9 m
Explanation:
For this exercise we can use the relationship between the work of the friction force and mechanical energy.
Let's look for work
W = -fr d
The negative sign is because Lafourcade rubs always opposes the movement
On the inclined part, of Newton's second law
Y Axis
N - W cos θ = 0
The equation for the force of friction is
fr = μ N
fr = μ mg cos θ
We replace at work
W = - μ m g cos θ d
Mechanical energy in the lower part of the embankment
Em₀ = K = ½ m v²
The mechanical energy in the highest part, where it stopped
= U = m g y
W = ΔEm = - Em₀
- μ m g d cos θ = m g y - ½ m v²
Distance d and height (y) are related by trigonometry
sin θ = y / d
y = d sin θ
- μ m g d cos θ = m g d sin θ - ½ m v²
We calculate the distance traveled
d (g syn θ + μ g cos θ) = ½ v²
d = v²/2 g (sintea + myy cos tee)
d = 9.8 12.6 2/2 9.8 (sin16 + 0.128 cos 16)
d = 1555.85 /7.8145
d = 199.1 m
Let's use trigonometry to find the height
sin 16 = y / d
y = d sin 16
y = 199.1 sin 16
y = 54.9 m
Answer:
The average velocity for the time period beginning when t=1 and lasting 0.1 seconds = 16.40 ft/s.
Explanation:
Given that the height of the ball at time t is
The average velocity of an object is defined as the total displacement covered by the particle divided by the total time taken in covering that displacement.
If are the heights of the ball at time
and
, then the total displacement covered by the ball from time
to
is
.
Thus, the average velocity of the ball for the time interval is given by
For the time interval, beginning when t = 1 second and lasting 0.1 seconds,