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BlackZzzverrR [31]
3 years ago
7

6) Which is the best deal? 3.45 lbs for $3.58 $10.23 for 10.43 lbs

Mathematics
1 answer:
kirill115 [55]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

3.45 lbs for $3.58 because your getting 3 pounds of the item for 3 dollars.

Step-by-step explanation:

3.45 lbs for $ 3.58 is cheaper than 10.43 lbs for 10.23

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The given expression is 3.14(rs + r2)
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Step-by-step explanation:

R=3 S=5 then it's 3x5 which is 15

3x2=6

Next do 15+6=21

Then do 21x3.14=65.94

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Luke drove 325 miles in 5 hours. What was his average speed in miles per hour?
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Step-by-step explanation:

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Kia paid 20$ for each of her charms

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Determine the average rate of change of the function between the given values of the variable. g(x)=2/x ; x=4, x=a
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3 years ago
Suppose you have two urns with poker chips in them. Urn I contains two red chips and four white chips. Urn II contains three red
Neporo4naja [7]

Answer:

Multiple answers

Step-by-step explanation:

The original urns have:

  1. Urn 1 = 2 red + 4 white = 6 chips
  2. Urn 2 = 3 red + 1 white = 4 chips

We take one chip from the first urn, so we have:

The probability of take a red one is : \frac{1}{3} (2 red from 6 chips(2/6=1/2))

For a white one is: \frac{2}{3}(4 white from 6 chips(4/6=(2/3))

Then we put this chip into the second urn:

We have two possible cases:

  • First if the chip we got from the first urn was white. The urn 2 now has 3 red + 2 whites = 5 chips
  • Second if the chip we got from the first urn was red. The urn two now has 4 red + 1 white = 5 chips

If we select a chip from the urn two:

  • In the first case the probability of taking a white one is of:  \frac{2}{5} = 40%  ( 2 whites of 5 chips)
  • In the second case the probability of taking a white one is of:  \frac{1}{5} = 20%  ( 1 whites of 5 chips)

This problem is a dependent event because the final result depends of the first chip we got from the urn 1.

For the fist case we multiply :

\frac{4}{6} x \frac{2}{5} = \frac{4}{15} = 26.66%   ( \frac{4}{6} the probability of taking a white chip from the urn 1, \frac{2}{5}  the probability of taking a white chip from urn two)

For the second case we multiply:

\frac{1}{3} x \frac{1}{5} = \frac{1}{30} = .06%   ( \frac{1}{3} the probability of taking a red chip from the urn 1, \frac{1}{5}   the probability of taking a white chip from the urn two)

8 0
4 years ago
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