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AnnyKZ [126]
3 years ago
5

What is the formula used to find the volume of this shape

Engineering
1 answer:
horsena [70]3 years ago
8 0
Volume=Hh(b1+b2)/2. b1 and b2 are the base of the trapezoid
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A pitfall cited in Section 1.10 is expecting to improve the overall performance of a computer by improving only one aspect of th
Oxana [17]

Answer:

a) For this case the new time to run the FP operation would be reduced 20% so that means 100-20% =80% from the original time

(1-0.2)*70 s =56s

The reduction on this case is 70-56 s=14s

And since the new total time would be given by 250-14=236 s

b) For this case the total time is reduced 20%  so that means that the new total time would be (1-0.2)=0.8 times the original total time (1-0.2) *250s =200 s

The original time for INT operations is calculated as:

250 = 70+85+40 +t_{INT}

t_{INT}=55s

For this part the only time that was changed is assumed the INT operations so then:

200 = 70+85+40 \Delta t_{INT}

And then: \Delta t_{INT}= 200-70-85-40=5 s

c) A reduction of the total time implies that the total time would be 205 s from the results above. And the time for FP is 70, for L/S is 85 and for INT operations is 55 s, so then if we add 70+85+55=210s, we see that 210>205 so then we cannot reduce the total time 20% just reducing the branch intructions.

Explanation:

From the info given we know that a computer running a program that requires 250 s, with 70 s spent executing FP instructions, 85 s executed L/S instructions and 40 s spent executing branch instructions.

Part 1

For this case the new time to run the FP operation would be reduced 20% so that means 100-20% =80% from the original time

(1-0.2)*70 s =56s

The reduction on this case is 70-56 s=14s

And since the new total time would be given by 250-14=236 s

Part 2

For this case the total time is reduced 20%  so that means that the new total time would be (1-0.2)=0.8 times the original total time (1-0.2) *250s =200 s

The original time for INT operations is calculated as:

250 = 70+85+40 +t_{INT}

t_{INT}=55s

For this part the only time that was changed is assumed the INT operations so then:

200 = 70+85+40 \Delta t_{INT}

And then: \Delta t_{INT}= 200-70-85-40=5 s

And we can quantify the decrease using the relative change:

\% Change = \frac{5s}{55 s} *100 = 9.09\% of reduction

Part 3

A reduction of the total time implies that the total time would be 205 s from the results above. And the time for FP is 70, for L/S is 85 and for INT operations is 55 s, so then if we add 70+85+55=210s, we see that 210>205 so then we cannot reduce the total time 20% just reducing the branch intructions.

8 0
3 years ago
Mark each one as either Potential or Kinetic Energy?
never [62]
A- kinety
b- potential
3 0
2 years ago
What is the function of a fixed resistor?
agasfer [191]

Answer:

  add resistance to a circuit

Explanation:

It depends on the design in which it is incorporated. A fixed resistor has many uses, including, but not limited to ...

  • dropping voltage
  • limiting current
  • contributing to a time delay
  • adjusting frequency response
  • eliminating (or creating) signal reflections
  • acting as a fuse
  • calibrating or trimming a response
  • providing protection against electrical shock or ESD
  • acting as a reference when measuring variable resistors
8 0
3 years ago
Ben İngiliz oldum düzelte bilirmiyim
Lelu [443]

Answer:

What laguange is that?

Explanation:

7 0
3 years ago
A standard penetration test has been conducted on a coarse sand at a depth of 16 ft below the ground surface. The blow counts ob
scoray [572]

Solution :

Given :

The number of blows is given as :

0 - 6 inch = 4 blows

6 - 12 inch = 6 blows

12 - 18 inch = 6 blows

The vertical effective stress $=1500 \ lb/ft^2$

                                              $= 71.82 \ kN/m^2$

                                             $ \sim 72 \ kN/m^2 $

Now,

$N_1=N_0 \left(\frac{350}{\bar{\sigma}+70} \right)$

$N_1 = $ corrected N - value of overburden

$\bar{\sigma}=$ effective stress at level of test

0 - 6 inch, $N_1=4 \left(\frac{350}{72+70} \right)$

                      = 9.86

6 - 12 inch, $N_1=6 \left(\frac{350}{72+70} \right) $

                        = 14.8

12 - 18 inch, $N_1=6 \left(\frac{350}{72+70} \right) $

                         = 14.8

$N_{avg}=\frac{9.86+14.8+14.8}{3}$

       = 13.14

       = 13

8 0
2 years ago
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