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GREYUIT [131]
4 years ago
10

You are standing 2.5 m directly in front of one of the two loudspeakers shown in the figure. they are 3.0 m apart and both are p

laying a 686 hz tone in phase
Physics
1 answer:
Mnenie [13.5K]4 years ago
5 0
I'll just find out the path difference between the waves at the starting point. At infinity, the path difference will be zero because the observer will be infinitely far away from both. As the observer goes farther, the path difference keeps reducing till it reaches zero as the observer reaches infinity. 
<span>Path difference at starting point = Distance from lower speaker - Distance from upper speaker = √((3)² + (2.5)²) - 2.5 = 1.405 m </span>
<span>Now to find wavelength. </span>
<span>Speed of sound in air at 20 degrees C = 343 m/s </span>
<span>Wavelength = 343 / 686 = 0.5 m </span>
<span>Destructive interference occurs when path difference = (2n + 1)λ/2 where n is an integer. </span>
<span>Maximum n possible can be found by, </span>
<span>(2n + 1)λ/2 < 1.405 </span>
<span>(2n + 1) < (1.4)(2) / (0.5) </span>
<span>2n < 5.6 - 1 </span>
<span>2n < 4.6 </span>
<span>n < 2.3 </span>
<span>So, we have 3 values of n, 0, 1 and 2. </span>
<span>Path differences are, λ/2, 3λ/2 and 5λ/2 which have values 0.25 m , 0.75 m and 1.25 m </span>
<span>But the question asks for distance from starting point. (sheesh!!) </span>
<span>Lets say the observer walked x distance. </span>
<span>Path difference = √((3)² + (2.5 + x)²) - (2.5 + x) </span>
<span>Equate this expression to the values obtained above to get the different values of x. </span>

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An electron moves through a uniform electric field vector E = (2.80î + 5.20ĵ) V/m and a uniform magnetic field vector B = 0.400k
alina1380 [7]

Answer:

1.758820×10^11(-2.5i-0.8j) m/s^2

Explanation:

From the question, the parameters given are; E=(2.80i+ 5.20j) v/m, a uniform magnetic field,B= 0.400K T, acceleration, a= ??? and velocity vector, v= 11.0i metre per seconds (m/s)...

We can solve this problem using the formula below;

Ma= q[E+V × B] ---------------(1).

Note: q is negative, m= mass of electron.

Making acceleration,a the subject of the formula and substituting the parameters into equation (1);

a= -e/m × (2.5i + 5.2j +11.0i × 0.400K)

a= -e/m × (2.5i+5.2j-4.4j)

a= e/m × (-2.5i - 0.8j)

e/m= 1.758820×10^11 c/kg

Therefore, slotting in the value of charge to mass(e/m) ratio;

a= 1.7588×10^11×(-2.5i-0.8j) m/s^2

7 0
3 years ago
ANSWERS UNDER QUESTIONS:
Julli [10]
<h2>Answers:</h2><h2 /><h2>a) Arrow B</h2><h2>b) Arrow E</h2>

Explanation:

Refraction is a phenomenon in which a wave (the light in this case) bends or changes its direction <u>when passing through a medium with a refractive index different from the other medium.</u>  Where the Refractive index is a number that describes how fast light propagates through a medium or material.  

According to this, if we observe the rays  A an D passing throgh the biconcave lens, we will have two mediums:

1) The air

2)The material of the biconcave lens

This two mediums have different refractive indexes, hence the rays will change the direction.

-For the incident ray A, the corresponding refractive ray is B, because is the ray that bends after passing throgh the lens

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Options are:<br>a)4Cn<br>b)5Cn<br>c)6 Cn<br>d)3 Cn<br>​
nasty-shy [4]

Answer:

Option B. 5 nC

Explanation:

From the question given above, the following data were obtained:

Capicitance (C) = 100 pF

Potential difference (V) = 50 V

Quantity of charge (Q) =?

Next, we shall convert 100 pF to Farad (F). This can be obtained as follow:

1 pF = 1×10¯¹² F

Therefore,

100 pF = 100 pF × 1×10¯¹² F / 1 pF

100 pF = 1×10¯¹⁰ F

Next, we shall determine the quantity of charge. This can be obtained as follow:

Capicitance (C) = 1×10¯¹⁰ F

Potential difference (V) = 50 V

Quantity of charge (Q) =?

Q = CV

Q = 1×10¯¹⁰ × 50

Q = 5×10¯⁹ C

Finally, we shall convert 5×10¯⁹ C to nano coulomb (nC). This can be obtained as follow:

1 C = 1×10⁹ nC

Therefore,

5×10¯⁹ C = 5×10¯⁹ C × 1×10⁹ nC / 1 C

5×10¯⁹ C = 5 nC

Thus, the quantity of charge is 5 nC

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