Answer:
c. an estimate of a plant asset's value at the end of its useful life
Explanation:
The salvage value or the residual value is the estimated value of the fixed asset which can be received at the end of its useful life. So, neither it is a fair market value of a plant asset , nor it is deducted from the accumulated depreciation.
The treatment of the residual value under the straight-line method or any other method is shown below:
The depreciation expense under the straight-line method is shown below:
= (Original cost - residual value) ÷ estimated life in years
The residual value should always be deducted from the original cost of fixed asset
The deadweight loss from a tax per unit of good will be smallest in a market with inelastic supply and inelastic demand.
The Deadweight loss refers to loss that occurs when supply and demand are not in equilibrium and thus, result in market inefficiency.
Usually, the value of the deadweight loss varies with the demand elasticity and supply elasticity.
So, when the demand or supply is inelastic, the deadweight loss of the taxation will be smaller because the quantity bought or sold varies less with price.
Therefore, the answer is B. because the deadweight loss from a tax per unit of good will be smallest in a market with inelastic supply and inelastic demand.
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<em>brainly.com/question/13719669</em>
Answer:
producers of the bags of popcorn because they will sell more to the movie theater
Answer:
The actual price = $1.08
Explanation:
The standard material price can be worked out as follows:
<em>Step 1: Work out the standard price of material using the material usage variance</em>
Standard price = Material usage variance/(standard quantity of material - actual quantity)
Standard quantity of material = standard qty per unit × actual production
= 4 × 17,000 =68,000
Standard price = 2,800/(68,000-64,000)= $0.7
<em>Step 2 : Work out the Actual material price using the material price variance</em>
Material price variance = (Standard price - Actual price )× Actual quantity of material
6,400 = (y - 0.7) × 17,000
6400 = 17,000y - 11,900
17,000 y = 6,400 + 11,900
y = 18,300/17,000= 1.08
The actual price = $1.08
Answer:
$ 7.5 million
Explanation:
The investment bank will have a loss which = ( 9.75 - 10.50 ) × 10 million = $ - 7.5 million
