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Vedmedyk [2.9K]
3 years ago
12

The magnetic bearing of compass "north" is _____. 090 180 270 360

Physics
1 answer:
MrMuchimi3 years ago
6 0
In navigation bearing refers to : 1. the direction of motion itself; 2. the direction of a distant object relative to the current course 3.the angle away from North of a distant point as observed at the current point.

There is a thing called absolute bearing, and it refers to the angle between the magnetic North/true North and an object. (e.g. an object of 0 degrees would be dead ahead, whereas and object of 180 degrees would be behind you)
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A 12,000-N car is raised using a hydraulic lift, which consists of a U-tube with arms of unequal areas, filled with oil and capp
Bond [772]

Answer:

= 925.92 N

≅ 926N

Explanation:

Pressure due to car = pressure due to applied force  

12000/18^2 = Force / 5^2

force = 12000 * 25/ 324

= 925.92 N

For equilibrium

Pressure1 = Pressure2

A1F1 = A2F2

12000*pi*(5^2) = F2 ( pi)*(18^2)

so, F2 = Applied force to lift car = 925.92 N

Pascal's principle

Pressure1 = Pressure2

F1/A1 = F2/A2 (F=force and A=area)

A1 =Pi*(0.05)²

A2 =Pi(0.18)²

F2=12000

F1 = 12000*(0.05)² / (0.18)² = 926N

7 0
3 years ago
What is the energy due to compressing a spring
Westkost [7]

Answer: Elastic Potential Energy

Explanation: Energy present on compressed strings is called Elastic Potential Energy.

8 0
3 years ago
A cylindrical rod of copper (E = 110 GPa, 16 × 106 psi) having a yield strength of 240 MPa (35,000 psi) is to be subjected to a
Fynjy0 [20]

Answer:

d= 7.32 mm

Explanation:

Given that

E= 110 GPa

σ = 240 MPa

P= 6640 N

L= 370 mm

ΔL = 0.53

Area A= πr²

We know that  elongation due to load given as

\Delta L=\dfrac{PL}{AE}

A=\dfrac{PL}{\Delta LE}

A=\dfrac{6640\times 370}{0.53\times 110\times 10^3}

A= 42.14 mm²

πr² = 42.14 mm²

r=3.66 mm

diameter ,d= 2r

d= 7.32 mm

4 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
After being struck by a bowling ball, a 1.3 kg bowling pin sliding to the right at 5.0 m/s collides head-on with another 1.3 kg
GuDViN [60]

Answer:

a) 4.2m/s

b) 5.0m/s

Explanation:

This problem is solved using the principle of conservation of linear momentum which states that in a closed system of colliding bodies, the sum of the total momenta before collision is equal to the sum of the total momenta after collision.

The problem is also an illustration of elastic collision where there is no loss in kinetic energy.

Equation (1) is a mathematical representation of the the principle of conservation of linear momentum for two colliding bodies of masses m_1 and m_2 whose respective velocities before collision are u_1 and u_2;

m_1u_1+m_2u_2=m_1v_1+m_2v_2..............(1)

where v_1 and v_2 are their respective velocities after collision.

Given;

m_1=1.3kg\\u_1=5m/s\\m_2=1.3kg\\u_2=0m/s

Note that u_2=0 because the second mass m_2 was at rest before the collision.

Also, since the two masses are equal, we can say that m_1=m_2=m so that equation (1) is reduced as follows;

mu_1+mu_2=mv_1+mv_2\\\\m(u_1+u_2)=m(v_1+v_2)..............(2)

m cancels out of both sides of equation (2), and we obtain the following;

u_1+u_2=v_1+v_2.............(3)

a) When v_1=0.8m/s, we obtain the following by equation(3)

5+0=0.8+v_2\\hence\\v_2=5-0.8\\v_2=4.2m/s

b) As m_1 stops moving v_1=0, therefore,

5+0=0+v_2\\v_2=5m/s

5 0
3 years ago
Two horizontal rods are each held up by vertical strings tied to their ends. Rod 1 has length L and mass M; rod 2 has length 2L
antiseptic1488 [7]

Answer:

Rod 1 has greater initial angular acceleration; The initial angular acceleration for rod 1 is greater than for rod 2.

Explanation:

For the rod 1 the angular acceleration is

\tau_1 = I_1\alpha _1 \\\\\alpha_1 = \dfrac{\tau_1}{I_1}

Similarly, for rod 2

\alpha_2 = \dfrac{\tau_2}{I_2}.

Now, the moment of inertia for rod 1 is

I_1 = \dfrac{1}{3}ML^2,

and the torque acting on it is (about the center of mass)

\tau_1 = Mg\dfrac{L}{2};

therefore, the angular acceleration of rod 1 is  

\alpha_1 = \dfrac{Mg\dfrac{L}{2}}{\dfrac{1}{3}ML^2},

\boxed{\alpha_1 = \dfrac{3g}{2L} }

Now, for rod 2 the moment of inertia is

I_2 = \dfrac{1}{3}(2M)(2L)^2

I_2 = \dfrac{8}{3} ML^2,

and the torque acting is (about the center of mass)

\tau _2 = (2M)g \dfrac{(2L)}{2}

\tau _2 = 2MgL;

therefore, the angular acceleration \alpha_2 is

\alpha_2 = \dfrac{2MgL;}{\dfrac{8}{3} ML^2,}.

\boxed{\alpha_2 = \dfrac{3g}{4L}}

We see here that

\dfrac{3g}{2L} > \dfrac{3g}{4L}

therefore

\boxed{\alpha_1 > \alpha_2.}

In other words , the initial angular acceleration for rod 1 is greater than for rod 2.

7 0
3 years ago
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