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Semmy [17]
4 years ago
13

The brick wall (of thermal conductivity 0.35 W/m ·◦ C) of a building has dimensions of 2.7 m by 6 m and is 16 cm thick. How much

heat flows through the wall in a 18.6 h period when the average inside and outside temperatures are, respectively, 31◦C and 8◦C? Answer in units of MJ.
Physics
2 answers:
Gwar [14]4 years ago
8 0

Answer:

Q = 54.577\,MJ

Explanation:

The heat transfer through brick wall is:

\dot Q = \frac{k\cdot A}{L}\cdot \Delta T

\dot Q = \frac{\left(0.35\,\frac{W}{m\cdot ^{\circ}C} \right)\cdot (2.7\,m)\cdot (6\,m)}{0.16\,m} \cdot (31^{\circ}C - 8^{\circ}C)

\dot Q = 815.063\,W

The heat flow in a 18.6-h period is:

Q = \dot Q \cdot \Delta t

Q = (815.063\,W)\cdot (18.6\,h)\cdot \left(\frac{3600\,s}{1\,h} \right)

Q = 54576618.48\,J

Q = 54.577\,MJ

Salsk061 [2.6K]4 years ago
8 0

Answer:

W = 54.6 MJ ... ( 3 sig fig )

Explanation:

Given:-

- The thermal conductivity of wall, k = 0.35 W/m°C

- The thickness of wall , L = 16 cm

- The surface dimension of wall A = ( 2.7 x 6 ) m

- The time duration t = 18.6 hours

- The inside temperature, Ti = 31°C

- The outside temperature, To = 8°C

Find:-

How much heat flows through the wall in a 18.6 h period

Solution:-

- The Fourier's law of heat conduction in ( one - dimension ) through any material with thermal conductivity "k" is represented by the rate of heat transfer in the direction of x.

                      Q= - k*A*\frac{dT}{dx}

- The fully derived expression for conduction heat transfer is given by:

                     Q = k*A*\frac{T_i - T_o}{L}

- Plug in the given values and compute the rate of heat transfer:

                    Q = 0.35*2.7*6*\frac{31 - 8}{0.16}\\\\Q = 5.67*\frac{23}{0.16}\\\\Q = 815.0625 W

- The heat energy that flows through the wall during time t = 18.6 hrs is given by W:

                   W = Q*t*3600 / 10^6

                   W = 815.0625*18.6*3600 / 10^6

                   W = 54576585 / 10^6 MJ

                   W = 54.6 MJ ... ( 3 sig fig )

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I need both parts please (a) Given a material with an attenuation coefficient (a) of 0.6/cm, what is the intensity of a beam (wi
Masteriza [31]

Answer:

<h3>a.</h3>
  • After it has traveled through 1 cm : I(1 \ cm) = 0.5488 I_0
  • After it has traveled through 2 cm : I(2 \ cm) = 0.3012 I_0
<h3>b.</h3>
  • After it has traveled through 1 cm : od( 1\ cm) =  0.2606
  • After it has traveled through 2 cm :  od( 2\ cm) =  0.5211

Explanation:

<h2>a.</h2>

For this problem, we can use the Beer-Lambert law. For constant attenuation coefficient \mu the formula is:

I(x) = I_0 e^{-\mu x}

where I is the intensity of the beam, I_0 is the incident intensity and x is the length of the material traveled.

For our problem, after travelling 1 cm:

I(1 \ cm) = I_0 e^{- 0.6 \frac{1}{cm} \ 1 cm}

I(1 \ cm) = I_0 e^{- 0.6}

I(1 \ cm) = I_0 e^{- 0.6}

I(1 \ cm) = 0.5488 \ I_0

After travelling 2 cm:

I(2 \ cm) = I_0 e^{- 0.6 \frac{1}{cm} \ 2 cm}

I(2 \ cm) = I_0 e^{- 1.2}

I(2 \ cm) = I_0 e^{- 1.2}

I(2 \ cm) = 0.3012 \ I_0

<h2>b</h2>

The optical density od is given by:

od(x) = - log_{10} ( \frac{I(x)}{I_0} ).

So, after travelling 1 cm:

od( 1\ cm) = - log_{10} ( \frac{0.5488 \ I_0}{I_0} )

od( 1\ cm) = - log_{10} ( 0.5488 )

od( 1\ cm) = - (  - 0.2606)

od( 1\ cm) =  0.2606

After travelling 2 cm:

od( 2\ cm) = - log_{10} ( \frac{0.3012 \ I_0}{I_0} )

od( 2\ cm) = - log_{10} ( 0.3012 )

od( 2\ cm) = - (  - 0.5211)

od( 2\ cm) =  0.5211

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A moving particle encounters an external electric field that decreases its kinetic energy from 9970 eV to 6340 eV as the particl
marusya05 [52]

Answer:

q = -1.61x10⁻¹⁷ C

Explanation:

The charge of the particle can be found using the definition of the work done by electric force:  

W = -q\Delta V         (1)

<u>Where</u>:

q: is the charge

ΔV: is the difference in electric potential

The work is also equal to:

W = E_{p_{A}} - E_{p_{B}}    (2)

<u>Where</u>:

E_{p_{A}} and E_{p_{B}} are the electric potential energy of the points A and B, respectively.

Now, by conservation of energy we have:

K_{A} + E_{p_{A}} = K_{B} + E_{p_{B}}     (3)

<u>Where</u>:  

K_{A} and K_{B} are the kinetic energy of the points A and B, respectively.

Rearranging equation (3):  

K_{B} - K_{A} = E_{p_{A}} - E_{p_{B}}      

K_{B} - K_{A} = W

K_{B} - K_{A} = -q\Delta V

Solving the above equation for q:

q = -\frac{K_{B} - K_{A}}{V_{B} - V_{A}} = -\frac{6340 eV - 9970 eV}{19.0 V - 55.0 V} = -100.83 e \cdot \frac{1.6 \cdot 10^{-19} C}{1 e} = -1.61 \cdot 10^{-17} C                                              

Therefore, the charge of the particle is -1.61x10⁻¹⁷ C.

I hope it helps you!

7 0
3 years ago
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