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2 years ago

A material point in equilibrium has 1 independent component of shear stress in the xz plane. a)True b)- False

Engineering

1 answer:

ozzi2 years ago

8 0

Answer:

True

Explanation:

For point in xz plane the stress tensor is given by $\left[\begin{array}{ccc}Dx_{} &txz\\tzx&Dz\\\end{array}\right]$

where Dx is the direct stress along x ; Dz is direct stress along z ; tzx and txz are the shear stress components

We know that the stress tensor matrix is symmetrical which means that tzx = txz ( obtained by moment equlibrium )

thus we require only 1 independent component of shear stress to define the whole stress tensor at a point in 2D plane

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Rubber bushings are used on suspensions to

Harlamova29_29 [7]

D. All of the above

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2 years ago

A wooden pallet carrying 540kg rests on a wooden floor. (a) a forklift driver decides to push it without lifting it.what force m

kicyunya [14]

Answer:

The appropriate solution is "1481.76 N".

Explanation:

According to the question,

Mass,

m = 540 kg

Coefficient of static friction,

$\mu_s$ = 0.28

Now,

The applied force will be:

⇒ $F=\mu_s mg$

By substituting the values, we get

$=0.28\times 540\times 9.8$

$=1481.76 \ N$

8 0

2 years ago

A gas stream flowing at 1000 cfm with a particulate loading of 400 gr/ft3 discharges from a certain industrial plant through an

Makovka662 [10]

<u>Solution and Explanation:</u>

Volume of gas stream = 1000 cfm (Cubic Feet per Minute)

Particulate loading = 400 gr/ft3 (Grain/cubic feet)

1 gr/ft3 = 0.00220462 lb/ft3

Total weight of particulate matter = $1000 \mathrm{cfm} \times 400 \mathrm{gr} / \mathrm{tt} 3 \times .000142857 \mathrm{lb} / \mathrm{ft} 3 \times 60=3428.568 \mathrm{lb} / \mathrm{hr}$

Cyclone is to 80 % efficient

So particulate remaining = $0.20 \times 3428.568 \mathrm{lb} / \mathrm{hr}=685.7136$

emissions from this stack be limited to = 10.0 lb/hr

Particles to be remaining after wet scrubber = 10.0 lb/hr

So particles to be removed = 685.7136- 10 = 675.7136

Efficiency = output multiply with 100/input = 98.542 %

4 0

2 years ago

Anaircraft component is fabricated from an aluminum alloy that has a plane-strain fracture toughness of 40 MPa 1/2.It has been d

navik [9.2K]

Answer:

Yes, fracture will occur since toughness (42.4 MPa) is greater than the toughness of the material, 40MPa

Explanation:

Given

Toughness, k = 40Mpa

Stress, σ = 300Mpa

Length, l = 4mm = 4 * 10^-3m

Under which fracture occurred (i.e., σ= 300 MPa and 2a= 4.0 mm), first we solve for parameter Y (The dimensionless parameter)

Y = k/(σπ√a)

Where a = ½ of the length in metres

Y = 40/(300 * π * √(4/2 * 10^-3))

Y = 1.68 ---- Approximated

To check if fracture will occur of not; we apply the same formula.

Y = k/(σπ√a)

Then we solve for k, where

σ = 260Mpa and a = ½ * 6 * 10^-3

So,.we have

1.68 = k/(260 * π * √(6*10^-3)/2)

k = 1.68 * (260 * π * (6*10^-3)/2)

k = 42.4 MPa --- Approximately

Therefore, fracture will occur since toughness (42.4 MPa) is greater than the toughness of the material, 40 MPa

7 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

Assume a program requires the execution of 50 x 106 FP instructions, 110 x 106 INT instructions, 80 x 106 L/S instructions, and

Pavlova-9 [17]

Answer:

Part A:

$1.3568*10^{-5}=\frac{5300* New\ CPI_1+11660*1+8480*4+1696*2}{2*10^9\ Hz} \\ New\ CPI_1=-4.12$

CPI cannot be negative so it is not possible to for program to run two times faster.

Part B:

$1.3568*10^{-5}=\frac{5300*1+11660*1+8480*New\ CPI_3+1696*2}{2*10^9\ Hz} \\ New\ CPI_3=0.8$

CPI reduced by $1-\frac{0.8}{4} = 0.80$ =80%

Part C:

New Execution Time= $\frac{5300*0.6+11660*0.6+8480*2.8+1696*1.4}{2*10^9\ Hz}=1.81472*10^{-5}\ s$

Increase in speed= $1-\frac{1.81472*10^{-5}}{2.7136*10^{-5}} =0.33125= 33.125\%$

Explanation:

FP Instructions=50*106=5300

INT Instructions=110*106=11660

L/S Instructions=80*106=8480

Branch Instructions=16*106=1696

Calculating Execution Time:

Execution Time= $\frac{\sum^4_{i=1} Number\ of\ Instruction*\ CPI_{i}}{Clock\ Rate}$

Execution Time= $\frac{5300*1+11660*1+8480*4+1696*2}{2*10^9\ Hz}$

Execution Time= $2.7136*10^{-5}\ s$

Part A:

For Program to run two times faster,Execution Time (Calculated above) is reduced to half.

New Execution Time= $\frac{2.7136*10^{-5}}{2}=1.3568*10^{-5}\ s$

$1.3568*10^{-5}=\frac{5300* New\ CPI_1+11660*1+8480*4+1696*2}{2*10^9\ Hz} \\ New\ CPI_1=-4.12$

CPI cannot be negative so it is not possible to for program to run two times faster.

Part B:

For Program to run two times faster,Execution Time (Calculated above) is reduced to half.

New Execution Time= $\frac{2.7136*10^{-5}}{2}=1.3568*10^{-5}\ s$

$1.3568*10^{-5}=\frac{5300*1+11660*1+8480*New\ CPI_3+1696*2}{2*10^9\ Hz} \\ New\ CPI_3=0.8$

CPI reduced by $1-\frac{0.8}{4} = 0.80$ =80%

Part C:

$New\ CPI_1=0.6*Old\ CPI_1=0.6*1=0.6\\New\ CPI_2=0.6*Old\ CPI_2=0.6*1=0.6\\New\ CPI_3=0.7*Old\ CPI_3=0.7*4=2.8\\New\ CPI_4=0.7*Old\ CPI_4=0.7*2=1.4$

New Execution Time= $\frac{\sum^4_{i=1} Number\ of\ Instruction*\ CPI_{i}}{Clock\ Rate}$

New Execution Time= $\frac{5300*0.6+11660*0.6+8480*2.8+1696*1.4}{2*10^9\ Hz}=1.81472*10^{-5}\ s$

Increase in speed= $1-\frac{1.81472*10^{-5}}{2.7136*10^{-5}} =0.33125= 33.125\%$

8 0

2 years ago