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3 years ago

What is the net displacement of the particle between 0 seconds and 80 seconds?

Physics

2 answers:

velikii [3]3 years ago

5 0

I'm pretty sure the answer is c. Just please don't take my word for it.

garik1379 [7]3 years ago

5 0

<span>What is the distance traversed by the particle between 0 seconds and 6 seconds?</span>

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photoshop1234 [79]

Answer:

It conserves both energy and momentum in the collision at the same time. By design, when the balls collide the strings that hold them up are vertical (assuming balls are only swung from one side).

Explanation:

Hope This Helps!!

7 0

2 years ago

A 120-kg object and a 420-kg object are separated by 3.00 m At what position (other than an infinitely remote one) can the 51.0-

djverab [1.8K]

Answer:

1.045 m from 120 kg

Explanation:

m1 = 120 kg

m2 = 420 kg

m = 51 kg

d = 3 m

Let m is placed at a distance y from 120 kg so that the net force on 51 kg is zero.

By use of the gravitational force

Force on m due to m1 is equal to the force on m due to m2.

$\frac{Gm_{1}m}{y^{2}}=\frac{Gm_{2}m}{\left ( d-y \right )^{2}}$

$\frac{m_{1}}{y^{2}}=\frac{m_{2}}{\left ( d-y \right )^{2}}$

$\frac{3-y}{y}=\sqrt{\frac{7}{2}}$

3 - y = 1.87 y

3 = 2.87 y

y = 1.045 m

Thus, the net force on 51 kg is zero if it is placed at a distance of 1.045 m from 120 kg.

6 0

3 years ago

65. A length of wire is bent into a closed loop and a magnet is plunged into it, inducing a voltage and, consequently, a current

natulia [17]

Answer:

Resistance of the second wire is twice the first wire.

Explanation:

Let us first see the formula of resistance;

R = pxL/A

Here L is the lenght of the wire, A the area and p is the resistivity of wire.

As we are given that the length of second wire is double than that of the first wire, hence the resistance of second wire would be double.

Since we have two loop in second case, inducing double voltage but as resistance is doubled so the current would remain same according to ohms law

I = V/R

6 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

A wave with a frequency of 80 Hz travels through rubber with a wavelength of 7.0 m. What is the velocity of the wave?

Scorpion4ik [409]

Answer:

560 m/s

Explanation:

Given,

Frequency ( f ) = 80 hz

Wavelength ( λ ) = 7.0 m = 7m

To find : Velocity ( v )

Formula : -

v = f λ

v = 80 x 7

v = 560 m/s

Hence, the velocity of the wave is 560 m/s.

5 0

2 years ago

a ball of mass 100g moving at a velocity of 100m/s collides with another ball of mass 400g moving at 50m/s in same direction, if

klio [65]

Answer:

Velocity of the two balls after collision: $60\; \rm m \cdot s^{-1}$ .

$100\; \rm J$ of kinetic energy would be lost.

Explanation:

<h3>Velocity</h3>

Because the question asked about energy, convert all units to standard units to keep the calculation simple:

Mass of the first ball: $100\; \rm g = 0.1\; \rm kg$ .
Mass of the second ball: $400\; \rm g = 0.4 \; \rm kg$ .

The two balls stick to each other after the collision. In other words, this collision is a perfectly inelastic collision. Kinetic energy will not be conserved. The velocity of the two balls after the collision can only be found using the conservation of momentum.

Assume that the system of the two balls is isolated. Thus, the sum of the momentum of the two balls will stay the same before and after the collision.

The momentum of an object of mass $m$ and velocity $v$ is: $p = m \cdot v$ .

Momentum of the two balls before collision:

First ball: $p = m \cdot v = 0.1\; \rm kg \times 100\; \rm m \cdot s^{-1} = 10\; \rm kg \cdot m \cdot s^{-1}$ .
Second ball: $p = m \cdot v = 0.4\; \rm kg \times 50\; \rm m \cdot s^{-1} = 20\; \rm kg \cdot m \cdot s^{-1}$ .
Sum: $10\; \rm kg \cdot m \cdot s^{-1} + 20 \; \rm kg \cdot m \cdot s^{-1} = 30 \; \rm kg \cdot m \cdot s^{-1}$ given that the two balls are moving in the same direction.

Based on the assumptions, the sum of the momentum of the two balls after collision should also be $30\; \rm kg \cdot m \cdot s^{-1}$ . The mass of the two balls, combined, is $0.1\; \rm kg + 0.4\; \rm kg = 0.5\; \rm kg$ . Let the velocity of the two balls after the collision $v\; \rm m \cdot s^{-1}$ . (There's only one velocity because the collision had sticked the two balls to each other.)

Momentum after the collision from $p = m \cdot v$ : $(0.5\, v)\; \rm kg \cdot m \cdot s^{-1$ .
Momentum after the collision from the conservation of momentum: $30\; \rm kg \cdot m \cdot s^{-1}$ .

These two values are supposed to describe the same quantity: the sum of the momentum of the two balls after the collision. They should be equal to each other. That gives the equation about $v$ :

$0.5\, v = 30$ .

$v = 60$ .

In other words, the velocity of the two balls right after the collision should be $60\; \rm m \cdot s^{-1}$ .

<h3>Kinetic Energy</h3>

The kinetic energy of an object of mass $m$ and velocity $v$ is $\displaystyle \frac{1}{2}\, m \cdot v^{2}$ .

Kinetic energy before the collision:

First ball: $\displaystyle \frac{1}{2} \, m \cdot v^2 = \frac{1}{2}\times 0.1\; \rm kg \times \left(100\; \rm m \cdot s^{-1}\right)^{2} = 500\; \rm J$ .
Second ball: $\displaystyle \frac{1}{2} \, m \cdot v^2 = \frac{1}{2}\times 0.4\; \rm kg \times \left(50\; \rm m \cdot s^{-1}\right)^{2} = 500\; \rm J$ .
Sum: $500\; \rm J + 500\; \rm J = 1000\; \rm J$ .

The two balls stick to each other after the collision. Therefore, consider them as a single object when calculating the sum of their kinetic energies.

Mass of the two balls, combined: $0.5\; \rm kg$ .
Velocity of the two balls right after the collision: $60\; \rm m\cdot s^{-1}$ .

Sum of the kinetic energies of the two balls right after the collision:

$\displaystyle \frac{1}{2} \, m \cdot v^{2} = \frac{1}{2}\times 0.5\; \rm kg \times \left(60\; \rm m \cdot s^{-1}\right)^2 = 900\; \rm J$ .

Therefore, $1000\; \rm J - 900\; \rm J = 100\; \rm J$ of kinetic energy would be lost during this collision.

7 0

3 years ago