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Charra [1.4K]
3 years ago
9

What’s 1 2/6 + 3 4/8. Help

Mathematics
1 answer:
lara31 [8.8K]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

4 \frac{5}{6}

Step-by-step explanation:

We can write 1 \frac{2}{6} as \frac{8}{6} and we can write 3 \frac{4}{8} as \frac{28}{8}. So the question becomes \frac{8}{6} + \frac{28}{8}. We can simplify both fractions so that the expression is \frac{4}{3} + \frac{7}{2} and to add the two fractions we need to find a common denominator. The least common multiple of 2 and 3 is 6, so we want the denominator to be 6 in both fractions. To do this, we multiply \frac{4}{3} by \frac{2}{2} and we multiply \frac{7}{2} by \frac{3}{3}.

So finally we get \frac{4}{3} \times \frac{2}{2} + \frac{7}{2} \times \frac{3}{3}, which is \frac{8}{6} + \frac{21}{6}, which is \frac{29}{6}.

And now all we have to do is rewrite the improper fraction \frac{29}{6}. Notice 6 goes into 29 exactly 4 times, with a remainder of 5. So the expression simplifies to 4 \frac{5}{6}

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Step-by-step explanation:

You should always use the least number of significant figures.  The exception is exact numbers or constants.

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Each day, Robin commutes to work by bike with probability 0.4 and by walking with probability 0.6. When biking to work injuries
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Answer:

64.65% probability of at least one injury commuting to work in the next 20 years

Step-by-step explanation:

In a Poisson distribution, the probability that X represents the number of successes of a random variable is given by the following formula:

P(X = x) = \frac{e^{-\mu}*\mu^{x}}{(x)!}


In which

x is the number of sucesses

e = 2.71828 is the Euler number

\mu is the mean in the given interval.

Each day:

Bikes to work with probability 0.4.

If he bikes to work, 0.1 injuries per year.

Walks to work with probability 0.6.

If he walks to work, 0.02 injuries per year.

20 years.

So

\mu = 20*(0.4*0.1 + 0.6*0.02) = 1.04

Either he suffers no injuries, or he suffer at least one injury. The sum of the probabilities of these events is decimal 1. So

P(X = 0) + P(X \geq 1) = 1

We want P(X \geq 1). Then

P(X \geq 1) = 1 - P(X = 0)

In which

P(X = x) = \frac{e^{-\mu}*\mu^{x}}{(x)!}


P(X = 0) = \frac{e^{-1.04}*1.04^{0}}{(0)!} = 0.3535


P(X \geq 1) = 1 - P(X = 0) = 1 - 0.3535 = 0.6465

64.65% probability of at least one injury commuting to work in the next 20 years

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