Ask question

Ask question

All categories

3 years ago

12

A waste treatment pond is 50m long and 25m wide, and has an average depth of 2m.The density of the waste is 75.3 lbm/ft3. Calcul

ate the weight of the pond contents in lbf, using a single dimensional equation for your calculation.

1 answer:

weeeeeb [17]3 years ago

6 0

Answer:

The weight of the pond contents is 6,643,233.22 lbf

Explanation:

Weight = density × volume × acceleration due to gravity

density = 75.3lbm/ft^3 = 75.3lbm/ft^3 × 0.45359kg/1lbm × (3.2808ft/1m)^3 = 1206.14kg/m^3

volume = length×width×depth = 50m×25m×2m = 2500m^3

acceleration due to gravity = 9.8m/s^2

Weight = 1206.14×2500×9.8 = 29,550,430N = 29,550,430N × 1lbf/4.4482N = 6,643,233.22lbf

You might be interested in

Define waves as it applies to electromagnetic fields

julsineya [31]

Waves in the electric and magnetic fields are known as electromagnetic waves. You must first understand what a field is, which is just a technique of giving each square inch of space a numerical value. You may see that as a temperature field, for instance, when you look at the weather predictions and they mention the temperature in several locations. Every location on Earth has a unique temperature that can be quantified. Everywhere on Earth has its own wind velocity, which is another form of field. This field differs somewhat from the temperature field in that the wind velocity has both a direction and a magnitude, whereas the temperature just has a magnitude (how hot it is). A vector is a quantity that has both magnitude and direction, hence a field that contains vectors at every location is referred to as a vector field. Vector fields include the magnetic and electric fields. We may examine what would happen if we placed a charged particle at any given position in space. If the charged particle were to accelerate, we would state that the electric field there is the direction in which the particle is moving. In general, positively charged particles will move in the electric field's direction, whereas negatively charged particles will move in the opposite way. Because it is a vector field, the magnetic field exhibits comparable behavior. We discovered in the 19th century that the same interaction, electromagnetism, really produces both electric and magnetic fields. Like an electromagnet, a changing electric field will produce a magnetic field, and a changing magnetic field will induce an electric field (like in a generator). If your system is configured properly, you may have an electric field that fluctuates, which in turn produces a magnetic field, which in turn induces another electric field, which in turn generates another magnetic field, and so on indefinitely. At the speed of light, this oscillation between a strong magnetic field and strong electric field spreads out indefinitely. In reality, light is an electromagnetic wave—an oscillation in the electromagnetic fields. An electric or magnetic field may exist without a medium since they exist in a vacuum, which implies that waves in these fields don't require a medium like sound to flow through.

5 0

2 years ago

Select the right answer<br>

Kruka [31]

Answer:

for 1st question the answer is 5th option.

for 2nd question the answer is 2nd option

hope it helps you mate

please mark me as brainliast

5 0

3 years ago

About what thickness of aluminum is needed to stop a beam of (a) 2.5-MeV electrons, (b) 2.5-MeV protons, and (c) 10-MeV alpha pa

Nana76 [90]

The thickness of aluminium needed to stop the beam electrons, protons and alpha particles at the given dfferent kinetic energies is 1.5 x 10⁻¹⁴ m.

<h3>Thickness of the aluminum</h3>

The thickness of the aluminum can be determined using from distance of closest approach of the particle.

$K.E = \frac{2KZe^2}{r}$

where;

Z is the atomic number of aluminium = 13
e is charge
r is distance of closest approach = thickness of aluminium
k is Coulomb's constant = 9 x 10⁹ Nm²/C²

<h3>For 2.5 MeV electrons</h3>

$r = \frac{2KZe^2}{K.E} \\\\r = \frac{2 \times 9\times 10^9 \times 13\times (1.6\times 10^{-19})^2}{2.5 \times 10^6 \times 1.6 \times 10^{-19}} \\\\r = 1.5 \times 10^{-14} \ m$

<h3>For 2.5 MeV protons</h3>

Since the magnitude of charge of electron and proton is the same, at equal kinetic energy, the thickness will be same. r = 1.5 x 10⁻¹⁴ m.

<h3>For 10 MeV alpha-particles</h3>

Charge of alpah particle = 2e

$r = \frac{2KZe^2}{K.E} \\\\r = \frac{2 \times 9\times 10^9 \times 13\times (2 \times 1.6\times 10^{-19})^2}{10 \times 10^6 \times 1.6 \times 10^{-19}} \\\\r = 1.5 \times 10^{-14} \ m$

Thus, the thickness of aluminium needed to stop the beam electrons, protons and alpha particles at the given dfferent kinetic energies is 1.5 x 10⁻¹⁴ m.

Learn more about closest distance of approach here: brainly.com/question/6426420

7 0

2 years ago

Three tool materials (high-speed steel, cemented carbide, and ceramic) are to be compared for the same turning operation on a ba

Tpy6a [65]

Answer:

Among all three tools, the ceramic tool is taking the least time for the production of a batch, however, machining from the HSS tool is taking the highest time.

Explanation:

The optimum cutting speed for the minimum cost

$V_{opt}= \frac{C}{\left[\left(T_c+\frac{C_e}{C_m}\right)\left(\frac{1}{n}-1\right)\right]^n}\;\cdots(i)$

Where,

C,n = Taylor equation parameters

$T_h$ =Tool changing time in minutes

$C_e$ =Cost per grinding per edge

$C_m$ = Machine and operator cost per minute

On comparing with the Taylor equation $VT^n=C$ ,

Tool life,

$T= \left[ \left(T_t+\frac{C_e}{C_m}\right)\left(\frac{1}{n}-1\right)\right]}\;\cdots(ii)$

Given that,

Cost of operator and machine time $=\$40/hr=\$0.667/min$

Batch setting time = 2 hr

Part handling time: $T_h=2.5$ min

Part diameter: $D=73 mm$ $=73\times 10^{-3} m$

Part length: $l=250 mm=250\times 10^{-3} m$

Feed: $f=0.30 mm/rev= 0.3\times 10^{-3} m/rev$

Depth of cut: $d=3.5 mm$

For the HSS tool:

Tool cost is $20 and it can be ground and reground 15 times and the grinding= $2/grind.

So, $C_e=$ $\$20/15+2=\$3.33/edge$

Tool changing time, $T_t=3$ min.

$C= 80 m/min$

$n=0.130$

(a) From equation (i), cutting speed for the minimum cost:

$V_{opt}= \frac {80}{\left[ \left(3+\frac{3.33}{0.667}\right)\left(\frac{1}{0.13}-1\right)\right]^{0.13}}$

$\Rightarrow 47.7$ m/min

(b) From equation (ii), the tool life,

$T=\left(3+\frac{3.33}{0.667}\right)\left(\frac{1}{0.13}-1\right)\right]}$

$\Rightarrow T=53.4$ min

(c) Cycle time: $T_c=T_h+T_m+\frac{T_t}{n_p}$

where,

$T_m=$ Machining time for one part

$n_p=$ Number of pieces cut in one tool life

$T_m= \frac{l}{fN}$ min, where $N=\frac{V_{opt}}{\pi D}$ is the rpm of the spindle.

$\Rightarrow T_m= \frac{\pi D l}{fV_{opt}}$

$\Rightarrow T_m=\frac{\pi \times 73 \times 250\times 10^{-6}}{0.3\times 10^{-3}\times 47.7}=4.01 min/pc$

So, the number of parts produced in one tool life

$n_p=\frac {T}{T_m}$

$\Rightarrow n_p=\frac {53.4}{4.01}=13.3$

Round it to the lower integer

$\Rightarrow n_p=13$

So, the cycle time

$T_c=2.5+4.01+\frac{3}{13}=6.74$ min/pc

(d) Cost per production unit:

$C_c= C_mT_c+\frac{C_e}{n_p}$

$\Rightarrow C_c=0.667\times6.74+\frac{3.33}{13}=\$4.75/pc$

(e) Total time to complete the batch= Sum of setup time and production time for one batch

$=2\times60+ {50\times 6.74}{50}=457 min=7.62 hr$ .

(f) The proportion of time spent actually cutting metal

$=\frac{50\times4.01}{457}=0.4387=43.87\%$

Now, for the cemented carbide tool:

Cost per edge,

$C_e=$ $\$8/6=\$1.33/edge$

Tool changing time, $T_t=1min$

$C= 650 m/min$

$n=0.30$

(a) Cutting speed for the minimum cost:

$V_{opt}= \frac {650}{\left[ \left(1+\frac{1.33}{0.667}\right)\left(\frac{1}{0.3}-1\right)\right]^{0.3}}=363m/min$ [from(i)]

(b) Tool life,

$T=\left[ \left(1+\frac{1.33}{0.667}\right)\left(\frac{1}{0.3}-1\right)\right]=7min$ [from(ii)]

(c) Cycle time:

$T_c=T_h+T_m+\frac{T_t}{n_p}$

$T_m= \frac{\pi D l}{fV_{opt}}$

$\Rightarrow T_m=\frac{\pi \times 73 \times 250\times 10^{-6}}{0.3\times 10^{-3}\times 363}=0.53min/pc$

$n_p=\frac {7}{0.53}=13.2$

$\Rightarrow n_p=13$ [ nearest lower integer]

So, the cycle time

$T_c=2.5+0.53+\frac{1}{13}=3.11 min/pc$

(d) Cost per production unit:

$C_c= C_mT_c+\frac{C_e}{n_p}$

$\Rightarrow C_c=0.667\times3.11+\frac{1.33}{13}=\$2.18/pc$

(e) Total time to complete the batch $=2\times60+ {50\times 3.11}{50}=275.5 min=4.59 hr$ .

(f) The proportion of time spent actually cutting metal

$=\frac{50\times0.53}{275.5}=0.0962=9.62\%$

Similarly, for the ceramic tool:

$C_e=$ $\$10/6=\$1.67/edge$

$T_t-1min$

$C= 3500 m/min$

$n=0.6$

(a) Cutting speed:

$V_{opt}= \frac {3500}{\left[ \left(1+\frac{1.67}{0.667}\right)\left(\frac{1}{0.6}-1\right)\right]^{0.6}}$

$\Rightarrow V_{opt}=2105 m/min$

(b) Tool life,

$T=\left[ \left(1+\frac{1.67}{0.667}\right)\left(\frac{1}{0.6}-1\right)\right]=2.33 min$

(c) Cycle time:

$T_c=T_h+T_m+\frac{T_t}{n_p}$

$\Rightarrow T_m=\frac{\pi \times 73 \times 250\times 10^{-6}}{0.3\times 10^{-3}\times 2105}=0.091 min/pc$

$n_p=\frac {2.33}{0.091}=25.6$

$\Rightarrow n_p=25 pc/tool\; life$

So,

$T_c=2.5+0.091+\frac{1}{25}=2.63 min/pc$

(d) Cost per production unit:

$C_c= C_mT_c+\frac{C_e}{n_p}$

$\Rightarrow C_c=0.667\times2.63+\frac{1.67}{25}=$1.82/pc$

(e) Total time to complete the batch

$=2\times60+ {50\times 2.63}=251.5 min=4.19 hr$ .

(f) The proportion of time spent actually cutting metal

$=\frac{50\times0.091}{251.5}=0.0181=1.81\%$

3 0

3 years ago

A fill covering a wide area is to be placed at the surface of this profile. The fill has a total unit weight of 20 kN/m^3 and is

goblinko [34]

Answer:

hello your question lacks some information attached below is the complete question with the required information

answer : 81.63 mm

Explanation:

settlement of the surface due to compression of the clay ( new consolidated )

= 81.63 mm

attached below is a detailed solution to the given problem

8 0

3 years ago