Which part of the iceberg displaces water equal in weight to the buoyant force
2 answers:
You might be interested in
a) Let's call x the direction parallel to the river and y the direction perpendicular to the river.
Dave's velocity of 4.0 m/s corresponds to the velocity along y (across the river), while 6.0 m/s corresponds to the velocity of the boat along x. Therefore, the drection of Dave's boat is given by:
relative to the direction of the river.
b) The distance Dave has to travel it S=360 m, along the y direction. Since the velocity along y is constant (4.0 m/s), this is a uniform motion, so the time taken to cross the river is given by
c) The boat takes 90 s in total to cross the river. The displacement along the y-direction, during this time, is 360 m. The displacement along the x-direction is
so, Dave's landing point is 540 m downstream.
d) If there were no current, Dave would still take 90 seconds to cross the river, because its velocity on the y-axis (4.0 m/s) does not change, so the problem would be solved exactly as done at point b).
Answer:
A) See Annex
B) Fq₁₂ = K * Q₁*Q₂ /16 [N] (repulsion force)
C) Fq₃₂ = K * Q₃*Q₂ /16 [N] (repulsion force)
D) Fq₄₂ = K * Q₄*Q₂ /32 [N] (attraction force)
E) Net force (its components)
Fnx = (2,59/64 )* K*Q² [N] in direction of original Fq₃₂
Fny =(2,59/64 )* K*Q² [N] in direction of original Fq₁₂
Explanation:
For calculation of d (diagonal of the square, we apply Pythagoras Theorem)
d² = L² + L² ⇒ d² = 2*L² ⇒ d = √2*L² ⇒ d= (√2 )*L
d = 4√2 units of length (we will assume meters, to work with MKS system of units)
B) Force of Q₁ exerts on charge Q₂
Fq₁₂ = K * Q₁*Q₂ /(L)² Fq₁₂ = K * Q₁*Q₂ /16 (repulsion force in the direction indicated in annex)
C) Force of Q₃ exerts on charge Q₂
Fq₃₂ = K * Q₃*Q₂ /(L)² Fq₃₂ = K * Q₃*Q₂ /16 (repulsion force in the direction indicated in annex)
D) Force of -Q₄ exerts on charge Q₂
Fq₄₂ = K * Q₄*Q₂ / (d)² Fq₄₂ = K * Q₄*Q₂ /32 (Attraction force in the direction indicated in annex)
E) Net force in the case all charges have the same magnitude Q (keeping the negative sign in Q₄)
Let´s take the force that Q₄ exerts on Q₂ and Q₂ = Q ( magnitude) and
Q₄ = -Q
Then the force is:
F₄₂ = K * Q*Q / 32 F₄₂ = K* Q²/32 [N]
We should get its components
F₄₂(x) = [K*Q²/32 ]* √2/2 and so is F₄₂(y) = [K*Q²/32 ]* √2/2
Note that this components have opposite direction than forces Fq₁₂ and
Fq₃₂ respectively, and that Fq₁₂ and Fq₃₂ are bigger than F₄₂(x) and F₄₂(y) respectively
In new conditions
Fq₁₂ = K * Q₁*Q₂ /16 becomes Fq₁₂ = K * Q²/ 16 [N] and
Fq₃₂ = K* Q₃*Q₂ /16 becomes Fq₃₂ = K* Q² /16 [N]
Note that Fq₁₂ and Fq₃₂ are bigger than F₄₂(x) and F₄₂(y) respectively
Then over x-axis we subtract Fq₃₂ - F₄₂(x) = Fnx
and over y-axis, we subtract Fq₁₂ - F₄₂(y) = Fny
And we get:
Fnx = K* Q² /16 - [K*Q²/32 ]* √2/2 ⇒ Fnx = K*Q² [1/16 - √2/64]
Fnx = (2,59/64 )* K*Q²
Fny has the same magnitude then
Fny =(2,59/64 )* K*Q²
The fact that Fq₁₂ and Fq₃₂ are bigger than F₄₂(x) and F₄₂(y) respectively, means that Fnx and Fny remains as repulsion forces
