All categories

3 years ago

Why is it impossible to create a perpetual motion machine?

Physics

1 answer:

Tatiana [17]3 years ago

8 0

Answer:

It is impossible to create a perpetual motion machine because some of the energy will always be lost in the conversion and therefore it will eventually stop.

Correct Answer : Option B

Explanation:

The perpetual motion machine is impossible machine as it is hypothetical working machine which would be in motion for an indefinite time in continuity of the motion. The continuity of motion for an indefinite time would mean that the working principle of the machine would never allow the dissipation of energy from the machine and all the machine would ultimately reserve all the energy and be converting it into forms without any loss.

This working principle is violation of first and second laws of thermodynamics and hence a machine will eventually lose some of its energy in every conversion of the working cycle and hence there will be a time where the machine would be stopped, and hence a perpetual motion machine cannot be made.

You might be interested in

A circular loop of flexible iron wire has an initial circumference of 165cm , but its circumference is decreasing at a constant

ArbitrLikvidat [17]

Answer:

emf induced is 0.005445 V and direction is clockwise because we can see area is decrease and so that flux also decrease so using right hand rule direction of current here clockwise

Explanation:

Given data

initial circumference = 165 cm

rate = 12.0 cm/s

magnitude = 0.500 T

tome = 9 sec

to find out

emf induced and direction

solution

we know emf in loop is - d∅/dt ........1

here ∅ = ( BAcosθ)

so we say angle is zero degree and magnetic filed is uniform here so that

emf = - d ( BAcos0) /dt

emf = - B dA /dt ..............2

so area will be

dA/dt = d(πr²) / dt

dA/dt = 2πr dr/dt

we know 2πr = c,

r = c/2π = 165 / 2π

r = 26.27 cm

c is circumference so from equation 2

emf = - B 2πr dr/dt ................3

and

here we find rate of change of radius that is

dr/dt = 12/2π = 1.91 $10^{-2}$ cm/s

so when 9.0s have passed that radius of coil = 26.27 - 191 (9)

radius = 9.08 $10^{-2}$ cm

so now from equation 3 we find emf

emf = - (0.500 ) 2π(9.08 $10^{-2}$ ) 1.91 $10^{-2}$

emf = - 0.005445

and magnitude of emf = 0.005445 V

emf induced is 0.005445 V and direction is clockwise because we can see area is decrease and so that flux also decrease so using right hand rule direction of current here clockwise

4 0

2 years ago

How do I calculate (30 points plus a brainlyest if correct)

Nat2105 [25]

Answer:

Are you trying to calculate the net force?

If so, it would be 3 N Up.

This is because the 15 N forces from the left and right cancel out, leaving only the upwards 15 N force, and the 12 N force. However, we have to subtract 12 from 15, leaving the final net force to be 3 N Up.

Let me know if this helps!

3 0

2 years ago

Red light of wavelength 633 nm from a helium-neon laser passes through a slit 0.320 mm wide. The diffraction pattern is observed

DanielleElmas [232]

Answer:

$W = 10.28\ mm$

Explanation:

Given,

Red light wavelength = 633 nm

width of slit = 0.320 mm

distance,d = 2.60 m

Condition of first maximum

$a sin \theta_1 = m\lambda$

$\theta_1 =sin^{-1}(\dfrac{m\lambda}{a})$

m = 1

$\theta_1 =sin^{-1}(\dfrac{633\times 10^{-9}}{0.32\times 10^{-3}})$

$\theta_1 = 0.1133^\circ$

Width of the first minima

$y_1 = L tan \theta_1$

$y_1 = 2.60\times tan( 0.11331)$

$y_1 = 5.14 \ mm$

Now, width of the central region

$W = 2 y_1$

$W = 2\times 5.14$

$W = 10.28\ mm$

8 0

3 years ago

Suggest a reason for stirring energy powder in water

notsponge [240]

Answer:

The stirring allows fresh solvent molecules to continually be in contact with the solute. If it is not stirred, then the water right at the surface of the solute becomes saturated with dissolved sugar molecules, meaning that it is more difficult for the additional solute to dissolve.

Explanation: Help this helps :)))

6 0

2 years ago

A bullet with mass m = 5.21 g is moving horizontally with a speed v = 443 m/s when it strikes a block of hardened steel with mas

AlladinOne [14]

Answer:

0.312 m/s

Explanation:

Elastic collisions conserve momentum and kinetic energy

The velocity of the center of mass will not change. It continues at

0.00521(443) / 14.80521 = 0.155893... ≈ 0.156 m/s

To conserve kinetic energy we can think of the center of mass (CoM) as an ideal spring returning to each mass that strikes it an identical speed of collision in the opposite direction.

The CoM sees the target approach at - 0.156 and will see it depart at 0.156 m/s

A ground based observer sees the target depart at the velocity of the CoM plus the relative velocity .

v = 0.156 + 0.156 = 0.312 m/s

6 0

2 years ago