Clearly visible data points and appropriate labels on each access that include units
It is possible because the rubber ball has mechanical energy which is equal to potential energy.
<h3>
What is mechanical energy?</h3>
Mechanical energy of an object is the total energy possessed by the object, including the potential energy and the kinetic energy.
M.A = K.E + P.E
<h3>What is kinetic energy?</h3>
Kinetic energy is the energy possessed by an object due to its motion.
<h3>What is potential energy?</h3>
Potential energy is the energy possessed by an object due to its position.
When kinetic energy (K.E) = 0
M.A = P.E
Thus, it is possible because the rubber ball has mechanical energy which is equal to potential energy.
Learn more about mechanical energy here: brainly.com/question/24443465
Answer:
a) 6.9*10^14 Hz
b) 9*10^-12 T
Explanation:
From the question, we know that
435 nm is given as the wavelength of the wave, at the same time, we also know that the amplitude of the electric field, E(max) has been given to be 2.7*10^-3 V/m
a)
To find the frequency of the wave, we would be applying this formula
c = fλ, where c = speed of light
f = c/λ
f = 3*10^8 / 435*10^-9
f = 6.90*10^14 Hz
b) again, to find the amplitude of the magnetic field, we would use this relation
E(max) = B(max) * c, magnetic field amplitude, B(max) =
B(max) = E(max)/c
B(max) = 2.7*10^-3 / 3*10^8
B(max) = 9*10^-12 T
c) and lastly,
1T = 1 (V.s/m^2)
Answer: 0.8 m
Explanation:
Velocity of throw = 4m/s
Maximum Height attained(h) =?
Downward acceleration experienced = 10m/s^2
Using the relation:
v^2 = u^2 + 2aS
v = final Velocity = 0 (at maximum height)
u = Initial Velocity = 4
a = g downward acceleration = - 10
0 = 4^2 + 2(-10)(S)
0 = 16 - 20S
20S = 16
S = 16 / 20
S = 0.8m
Maximum Height attained = 0.8m
