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Leona [35]
3 years ago
12

Two plane mirrors are facing each other. They are parallel, 6 cm apart, and 24 cm in length, as the drawing indicates. A laser b

eam is directed at the top mirror from the left edge of the bottom mirror. What is the smallest angle of incidence with respect to the top mirror, such that the laser beam hits the mirrors in each way
Physics
2 answers:
Strike441 [17]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

86degrrss

Explanation:

tan L =BC/AB

= 3/12 = 1/4

L= tan^-1 0.25

=4.0 degrees

= 90-4= 86degrees

Sophie [7]3 years ago
6 0

Answer: 33.69 degrees

Explanation:

Given

Distance between the two mirrors, = 6 cm

Length of the two mirrors, = 24 cm

Assuming the laser is shone from just clear of the left edge of the bottom mirror,

a)

Tan L = (O/A)

Tan L = (6 / 12)

Tan L = 0.5

L = Tan^-1 (0.5)

L = 26.57 degrees

(90 - 26.57) = 63.43 deg. to the normal.

Tan L = (6 / [24/6])

Tan L = (6 / 4)

Tan L = 1.5

L = Tan^-1 (1.5)

L = 56.31 degrees

(90 - 56.31) = 33.69 deg. to the normal.

Thus, the angle at which, with respect to the mirror, the laser beam hits the mirrors in each way is 33.69 degrees

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A solid ball has a radius of 2cm and a length of 7cm. It has a density of 3.1g/cm3
Iteru [2.4K]
Density is mass divided by volume, you would have to solve for the volume of the ball and rearrange the equation to density divided by volume equals mass
4 0
3 years ago
Jill applies a force of 250 N to a machine. The machine applies a force of 25 N to an object. What is the mechanical advantage o
Vinvika [58]

Mechanical advantage is defined as the ratio of output load to the input load. The mechanical advantage of the machine will be 0.1.

<h3>What is mechanical advantage?</h3>

Mechanical advantage is a measure of the ratio of output force to input force in a system,

It is used to obtain the efficiency of forces in levers and pulleys. It is an effective way of amplifying the force in simple machines like levers.

The theoretical mechanical advantage is defined as the ratio of the force responsible for the useful work in the system to the applied force.

Given

applied force = 250 N

Output force = 25

Mechanical advantage = work output / work input

\rm{Mechanical advantage}=\frac{F_O}{F_I}

\rm{Mechanical advantage}=\frac{25}{250}

\rm{Mechanical advantage}=0.1

Hence the mechanical advantage of the machine will be 0.1

To learn more about the mechanical advantage refer to the link;

brainly.com/question/7638820

3 0
2 years ago
3. According to Hund's rule, what's the expected magnetic behavior of vanadium (V)?
ivanzaharov [21]

Answer:

Diamagnetic

Explanation:

Hunds rule states that electrons occupy each orbital singly first before pairing takes place in degenerate orbitals. This implies that the most stable arrangement of electrons in an orbital is one in which there is the greatest number of parallel spins(unpaired electrons).

For vanadium V ion, there are 18 electrons which will be arranged as follows;

1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6.

All the electrons present are spin paired hence the ion is expected to be diamagnetic.

6 0
3 years ago
A 25.0-g sample of copper at 363 K is placed in I 00.0 g of water at 293 K. The copper and water quickly come to the sa me tempe
Simora [160]

Answer:

Final temperature is 295K

Explanation:

Where the sample of copper is placed in the water, the heat transferred from the copper is equal that the heat absorbed by the water.

The heat transferred from the copper is:

C×\frac{1mol}{63,546g}×mass×ΔT

Where C is molar heat capacity of copper (24,5J/molK)

Mass is 25,0g

And ΔT is final temperature - initial temperature (X-363K)

Also, the heat absorbed by the water is:

-C×\frac{1mol}{18,02g}×mass×ΔT

Where C is molar heat capacity of water (75,2J/molK)

Mass is 100,0g

And ΔT is final temperature - initial temperature (X-293K)

As heat transferred is equal to heat absorbed:

24,5J/molK×\frac{1mol}{63,546g}×25,0g×(X-363K) = -75,2J/molK×\frac{1mol}{18,02g}×100,0g× (X-293K)

9,64X J/K - 3499J = - 417X J/K + 122273J

426,64X J/K = 125772 J

<em>X = 295K</em>

<em></em>

Final temperature is 295K

I hope it helps!

6 0
3 years ago
What measures the distance between two consecutive crests of a wave?
Marina86 [1]
Answer A is incorrect
A crest is just one point. It is not the distance between 2 crests.

B  is incorrect
A trough is just 1 point. It is not the distance between 2 troughs.

C is incorrect.
the amplitude measures the height of a crest from the middle of the wave to the crest (or trough).

D is the correct answer. That is the distance between 2 crests or 2 troughs 
8 0
3 years ago
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