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qaws [65]
3 years ago
12

Which of the following has the best buffering capacity. (Buffering capacity can be thought of as the amount of strong acid or ba

se that must be added to a buffered solution to change its pH by 1)? Select one: a. 0.4 M CH3COONa/ 0.2 M CH3COOH b. None of these are appropriate concentrations for buffers c. they all have the same buffering capacity d. 0.4 M CH3COONa/ 0.6 M CH3COOH Correct e. 0.3 M CH3COONa/ 0.6 M CH3COOH
Chemistry
1 answer:
OleMash [197]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

The buffer d has the best buffering capacity.

Explanation:

It is possible to obtain the pH of a buffer using Henderson-Hasselbalch formula:

pH = pka + log₁₀ [A⁻]/[HA]

For CH₃COOH/CH₃COONa buffer:

pH = 4,8 + log₁₀ [CH₃COONa]/[CH₃COOH]

a. pH of this buffer is:

pH = 4,8 + log₁₀ [0,4]/[0,2]

pH = 5,1

As buffering capacity can be thought of as the amount of strong acid that must be added to a buffered solution to change its pH by 1:

For a pH of 4,1:

4,1 = 4,8 + log₁₀ [0,4-x]/[0,2+x]

Where x are the moles of strong acid added.

0,200 = [0,4-x]/[0,2+x]

0,0400 + 0,2x = 0,4 - x

<em>x = 0,3 mol</em>

d. pH of this buffer is:

pH = 4,8 + log₁₀ [0,4]/[0,6]

pH = 4,62

For a pH of 3,62:

3,62 = 4,8 + log₁₀ [0,4-x]/[0,6+x]

Where x are the moles of strong acid added.

0,066 = [0,4-x]/[0,6+x]

0,0396 + 0,066x = 0,4 - x

<em>x = 0,338 mol</em>

e. pH of this buffer is:

pH = 4,8 + log₁₀ [0,3]/[0,6]

pH = 4,5

For a pH of 3,5:

3,5 = 4,8 + log₁₀ [0,3-x]/[0,6+x]

Where x are the moles of strong acid added.

0,050 = [0,3-x]/[0,6+x]

0,030 + 0,05x = 0,3 - x

<em>x = 0,257 mol</em>

Thus, <em>buffer d needs more strong acid to change its pH. That means that have the best buffering capacity</em>

You can do the same process using strong base (Increasing pH in 1) and you will obtain the same results!

I hope it helps!

You might be interested in
Which of the following radioactive emissions is the least penetrating?
3241004551 [841]

Answer:

alpha particles

Explanation:

alpha particles the least penetrating but potentially most damaging and gamma rays the most penetrating. A beta particle, also called beta ray or beta radiation, is a high-energy, high-speed electron or positron emitted by the radioactive decay of an atomic nucleus during the process of beta decay.

sana po makatulong

#keeponlearning

#Godbless

4 0
2 years ago
A fixed quantity of gas fills a volume of 10.6 liters at 638 torr and 83 C. Find the volume it will occupy if the pressure is 10
sukhopar [10]
According to this formula:
(P1V1) / T1 = (P2V2) / T2

convert T from C° to Kelvin:
T1 = 83 + 273 = 356 K
T2= 96 + 273 = 369 K

convert P from torr to atm:
1 torr = 0.00131578947 atm<span>
p1 = 0.839474 atm
P2 = 1.415789 atm
By substitution in the previous formula:
(0.839474 x 10.6 ) / (356) = ( 1.415789 x V2 ) / 369
So:
V2 = 6.5 L</span>
5 0
3 years ago
1s^2 2s^2 2p^6 3s^2 3p^6 how many unpaired electrons are in the atom represented by the electron configuration above?
Sedbober [7]
It's a combination of factors:
Less electrons paired in the same orbital
More electrons with parallel spins in separate orbitals
Pertinent valence orbitals NOT close enough in energy for electron pairing to be stabilized enough by large orbital size
DISCLAIMER: Long answer, but it's a complicated issue, so... :)
A lot of people want to say that it's because a "half-filled subshell" increases stability, which is a reason, but not necessarily the only reason. However, for chromium, it's the significant reason.
It's also worth mentioning that these reasons are after-the-fact; chromium doesn't know the reasons we come up with; the reasons just have to be, well, reasonable.
The reasons I can think of are:
Minimization of coulombic repulsion energy
Maximization of exchange energy
Lack of significant reduction of pairing energy overall in comparison to an atom with larger occupied orbitals
COULOMBIC REPULSION ENERGY
Coulombic repulsion energy is the increased energy due to opposite-spin electron pairing, in a context where there are only two electrons of nearly-degenerate energies.
So, for example...
↑
↓
−−−−−

↑
↓
−−−−−

↑
↓
−−−−− is higher in energy than
↑
↓
−−−−−

↓
↑
−−−−−

↑
↓
−−−−−
To make it easier on us, we can crudely "measure" the repulsion energy with the symbol
Π
c
. We'd just say that for every electron pair in the same orbital, it adds one
Π
c
unit of destabilization.
When you have something like this with parallel electron spins...
↑
↓
−−−−−

↑
↓
−−−−−

↑
↓
−−−−−
It becomes important to incorporate the exchange energy.
EXCHANGE ENERGY
Exchange energy is the reduction in energy due to the number of parallel-spin electron pairs in different orbitals.
It's a quantum mechanical argument where the parallel-spin electrons can exchange with each other due to their indistinguishability (you can't tell for sure if it's electron 1 that's in orbital 1, or electron 2 that's in orbital 1, etc), reducing the energy of the configuration.
For example...
↑
↓
−−−−−

↑
↓
−−−−−

↑
↓
−−−−− is lower in energy than
↑
↓
−−−−−

↓
↑
−−−−−

↑
↓
−−−−−
To make it easier for us, a crude way to "measure" exchange energy is to say that it's equal to
Π
e
for each pair that can exchange.
So for the first configuration above, it would be stabilized by
Π
e
(
1
↔
2
), but the second configuration would have a
0
Π
e
stabilization (opposite spins; can't exchange).
PAIRING ENERGY
Pairing energy is just the combination of both the repulsion and exchange energy. We call it
Π
, so:
Π
=
Π
c
+
Π
e

Inorganic Chemistry, Miessler et al.
Inorganic Chemistry, Miessler et al.
Basically, the pairing energy is:
higher when repulsion energy is high (i.e. many electrons paired), meaning pairing is unfavorable
lower when exchange energy is high (i.e. many electrons parallel and unpaired), meaning pairing is favorable
So, when it comes to putting it together for chromium... (
4
s
and
3
d
orbitals)
↑
↓
−−−−−
↑
↓
−−−−−

↑
↓
−−−−−

↑
↓
−−−−−

↑
↓
−−−−−

↑
↓
−−−−−
compared to
↑
↓
−−−−−
↑
↓
−−−−−

↑
↓
−−−−−

↑
↓
−−−−−

↑
↓
−−−−−

↑
↓
−−−−−
is more stable.
For simplicity, if we assume the
4
s
and
3
d
electrons aren't close enough in energy to be considered "nearly-degenerate":
The first configuration has
Π
=
10
Π
e
.
(Exchanges:
1
↔
2
,
1
↔
3
,
1
↔
4
,
1
↔
5
,
2
↔
3
,

2
↔
4
,
2
↔
5
,
3
↔
4
,
3
↔
5
,
4
↔
5
)
The second configuration has
Π
=
Π
c
+
6
Π
e
.
(Exchanges:
1
↔
2
,
1
↔
3
,
1
↔
4
,
2
↔
3
,
2
↔
4
,
3
↔
4
)
Technically, they are about
3.29 eV
apart (Appendix B.9), which means it takes about
3.29 V
to transfer a single electron from the
3
d
up to the
4
s
.
We could also say that since the
3
d
orbitals are lower in energy, transferring one electron to a lower-energy orbital is helpful anyways from a less quantitative perspective.
COMPLICATIONS DUE TO ORBITAL SIZE
Note that for example,
W
has a configuration of
[
X
e
]
5
d
4
6
s
2
, which seems to contradict the reasoning we had for
Cr
, since the pairing occurred in the higher-energy orbital.
But, we should also recognize that
5
d
orbitals are larger than
3
d
orbitals, which means the electron density can be more spread out for
W
than for
Cr
, thus reducing the pairing energy
Π
.
That is,
Π
W
5 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
A solution contains 50.0g of heptane (C7H16)and 50.0g of octane (C8H18) at 25 degrees C.The vapor pressures of pure heptane and
AleksandrR [38]

Answer:

a)Pheptane = 24.3 torr          

Poctane = 5.12 torr    

b)Ptotal vapor = 29.42 torr

c)  81 % heptane

    19 % octane

d) See explanation below

Explanation:

The partial pressure is given by Raoult´s law as:

Pa = Xa Pºa where Pa = partial pressure of component A

                               Xa = mole fraction of A

                               Pºa = vapor pressure of pure A

For a binary solution what we have to do is compute the partial  vapor pressure of each component and then add them together to get total vapor pressure.

In order to calculate the composition of the vapor  in part b), we will first calculate the mole fraction of each component in the vapor which is given by the relationship:

          Xa = Pa/Pt where Xa = mol fraction of  in the vapor

                                       Pa = partial pressure of A as calculated above

                                        Pt = total vapor pressure

Once we have mole fractions we can calculate the masses of the components for part c)    

a)                  

 MW heptane = 100.21 g/mol

 MW octane = 114.23 g/mol

mol heptane = 50.0 g / 100.21 g/mol = 0.50 mol

mol octane = 50.0 g/ 114.23 g/mol = 0.44 mol

mol total = 0.94 ⇒ Xa= 0.50/0.94 = 0.53 and

                             Xb= 0.44/0.94 = 0.47

Pheptane = 0.53 x 45.8 torr = 24.3 torr

Poctane = 0.47 x 10.9 torr = 5.12 torr

b) Ptotal = 24.3 torr +5.12 torr = 29.42 torr

c) We will call Y the mole fraction in the vapor to differentiate it from the mole fraction in solution

Y heptane (in the vapor) = 24.3 torr/ 29.42 torr = 0.83

Y octane (in the vapor) = 5.12 torr/ 29.42 torr = 0.17

d) To solve this part   we will assume that since the molecular weights are similar then having a mole fraction for heptane of 0.82, we could say that for every mole of mixture we have 0.82 mol heptane and 0.17 mol octane  and then we can calculate the masses:

0.82 mol x 100.21  g/mol = 82.2 g

0.17 mol x 114.23 g/mol =  19.4 g

total mass = 101.6

% heptane = 82.2 g/101.6g x 100 = 81 %

% octane = 19 %

There is another way to do this more exactly by calculating the average molecular weight of the mixture:

average MW = 0.83 (100.21 g/mol)  + 0.17 ( 114.23 g/mol ) = 102. 6 g/mol

and then  having a mol fraction of 0.83  means in 1 mol of mixture we have 0.83 mol heptane and 0.17 mol octane then the masses are:

mass heptane = 0.83 x 100.21 g/mol = 83.2 g

mass octane = 0.17 x  114.23 g/mol = 19.4 g

mass of mixture = 1 mol x MW mixture = 1 mol x 102.6 g/mol 102.6 g

% heptane = (83.2 g/ 102.6 g ) x 100 g = 81 %

% octane = 100 - 81 = 19 %

d)The composition of the vapor is different from the composition of the solution because the vapor is going to be richer in the more volatile compound in the solution which in this case is heptane ( 45.8  vs 10.9 torr).

4 0
3 years ago
Care to help me guys please​
earnstyle [38]

Answer:

A. Na₂SO₄ and HCl

C. Polar solutes are soluble in polar solvents but are insoluble in non-polar solvents Non-polar solutes are insoluble in polar solvents but are are soluble in non-polar solvents

Ionic solutes are soluble in polar solvents but are insoluble in non-polar solvents.

Like dissolves like simply means that molecules of substances having similar chemical properties dissolve in each other

Explanation:

A. Ionic substances like Na₂SO₄ are composed of charged particles called ions. These ions are either positively charged or negatively charged, therefore, they are attracted to substances of opposite charges. Also, polar molecules like HCl contains two oppositely charged ends. A polar solvent consists of molecules with two oppositely charged ends, therefore, ionic substances as well polar substances dissolve in them according to the concept of like dissolves like.

Gasoline being non-polar will only dissolve in like substances, polar solvents.

C. Polar solutes are soluble in polar solvents but are insoluble in non-polar solvents Non-polar solutes are insoluble in polar solvents but are are soluble in non-polar solvents

Ionic solutes are soluble in polar solvents but are insoluble in non-polar solvents.

The statement "Like dissolves like" simply means that molecules of substances having similar chemical properties dissolve in each other. For example gasoline, a non-polar substance will dissolve only in a non-polar solvent like kerosene. Also, HCl, a polar molecule will dissolve in a polar solvent like water.

7 0
3 years ago
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