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kherson [118]
3 years ago
12

Suppose you designed a spacecraft to work by photon pressure. The sail was a completely absorbing fabric of area 1.0 km2 and you

directed a laser beam of wavelength 650 nm onto it at a rate of 1 mol of photons per second from a base on the moon. The spacecraft has a mass of 1.0 kg. Given that, after a period of acceleration from standstill, speed = (force/mass) x time, how many minutes would it take for the craft to accelerate to a speed of 1.0 m/s (about 2.2 mph)?
Physics
1 answer:
Alekssandra [29.7K]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

(a) F = 6.14 *10⁻⁴ N

(b) P = 6.14* 10⁻¹⁰ Pa

(c) t = 27.2 min

Explanation:

Area of sail A = 1.0 km² = 1.0 * 10⁶m²

Wavelength of light  λ = 650 nm = 650 * 10⁻⁹ m

Rate of impact of photons R = 1 mol/s = 6.022 * 10²³ photons/s

(a)

Momentum of each photon is Ρ = h/λ = 6.625 * 10⁻³⁴ / 650 * 10⁻⁹

      = 1.0192 * 10⁻²⁷ kg.m/s

Since the photons are absorbed completely, in every collision the above momentum is transferred to the sail.  

Momentum transferred to the sail per second is product of rate of impact of photons and momentum transferred by each photon.

dp/dt = R * h/ λ

This is the force acting on the sail.

F = R * h/λ = 6.022 * 10²³ * 1.0192 * 10⁻²⁷ = 6.14 *10⁻⁴ N

F = 6.14 *10⁻⁴ N

b)

Pressure exerted by the radiation on the sail = Force acting on the sail / Area of the sail

P = F/A =  6.14 * 10⁻⁴ / 1.0 * 10⁶ =  6.14* 10⁻¹⁰ Pa

P = 6.14* 10⁻¹⁰ Pa

c)  

Acceleration of spacecraft a = F/m = 6.14 * 10⁻⁴ /1.0 = 6.14 * 10⁻⁴m/s²

As the spacecraft starts from rest, initial speed u=0,m/s ,

final speed is u = 1.0 m/s after time t  

v = u+at  

t = 1.0 - 0/ 6.14 * 10⁻⁴ =  1629s = 27.2 min

t = 27.2 min

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I have 2 bulbs one coverts 60% of energy to light 45% which is the most efficient and what happens to the rest of the energy
Leya [2.2K]

Answer:

The first one (60%)

Explanation:

The first one converts 15% more energy than the other one. Therefore, it is more efficient.

Hope this helps!

5 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
If the swimmer starts at rest, slides without friction, and descends through a vertical height of 2.41 m
AveGali [126]

Answer:

6.88 m/s

Explanation:

The Conservation of Energy states that:

Initial Kinetic Energy + Initial Potential Energy = Final Kinetic Energy + Final Potential Energy

So we can write

mgh_{i}+\frac{1}{2}mv_{i} ^{2}=mgh_{f}+\frac{1}{2}mv_{f} ^{2}

We can cancel the common factor of m which leaves us with

gh_{i}+\frac{1}{2}v_{i} ^{2}=gh_{f}+\frac{1}{2}v_{f} ^{2}

Lets solve for v_f

gh_{i}+\frac{v_{i} ^{2}}{2}=gh_{f}+\frac{v_{f} ^{2}}{2}

Subtract gh_f from both sides of the equation.

gh_{i}+\frac{v_{i} ^{2}}{2}-gh_{f}=\frac{v_{f} ^{2}}{2}

Multiply both sides of the equation by 2.

2(gh_{i}+\frac{v_{i} ^{2}}{2}-gh_{f})={v_{f} ^{2}

Simplify the left side.

Apply the distributive property.

2(gh_{i})+2\frac{v_{i} ^{2}}{2}+2(-gh_{f})={v_{f} ^{2}

Cancel the common factor of 2.

2gh_{i}+v_{i} ^{2}-2gh_{f}={v_{f} ^{2}

Take the square root of both sides of the equation to eliminate the exponent on the right side.

{v_{f}=\sqrt{2gh_{i}+v_{i} ^{2}-2gh_{f}}

We are given g,v_{i},h_{i},h_{f}.

We can now solve for the final velocity.

{v_{f}=\sqrt{(2*9.81*2.41)+(0^{2})-(2*9.81*0)

Anything multiplied by 0 is 0.

{v_{f}=\sqrt{2*9.81*2.41

{v_{f}=\sqrt{47.2842

v_f=6.88

7 0
1 year ago
A fireman standing on a 15 m high ladder operates a water hose with a round nozzle of diameter 2.02 inch. The lower end of the h
Nataly_w [17]

Answer:

v₁ = 1,606 10⁴ m / s

Explanation:

For this exercise we must use Bernoulli's equation, let's use index 1 for the nozzle on the stairs and index 2 the pump on the street

              P₁ + ½ ρ v₁² + ρ g y₁ = P₂ + ½ ρ v₂² +ρ g y₂

             

The pressure when the water comes out is the atmospheric pressure

           P₁ = P_atm

The difference in height between the street and the nozzle on the stairs is

           y₂-y₁ = 15 m

Now let's use the continuity equation

             v₁ A₁ = v₂ A₁

The area of ​​a circle is

             A = π r² = π (d/2)²

            v₁ π d₁²/ 4 = v₂ π d₂²/ 4

            v₂ = v₁ d₁² / d₂²

Let's replace

           P₂-P_atm + ½ ρ [ (v₁ d₁² / d₂²)²- v₁² ] + ρ g (y2-y1) = 0

           P₂- P_Atm + ρ g (y₂-y₁) = ½ ρ v₁² [1- (d₁/d₂)⁴]

           v₁² [1- (d₁/d₂)⁴] = (P₂-P_atm) ρ / 2 + g (y₂-y₁) / 2

Let's reduce the magnitudes to the SI system

           d₂ = 3.37 in (2.54 10⁻² m / 1 in) = 8.56 10⁻² m

           d₁ = 2.02 in = 5.13 10⁻² m

Let's calculate

            v₁² [1- (5.13 / 8.56) 4] = 449.538 10³ 10³/2  -9.8 15/2

            v₁² [0.8710] = 2.2477 10⁸ - 73.5 = 2.2477 10⁸

            v₁ = √ 2.2477 10⁸ /0.8710

             v₁ = 1,606 10⁴ m / s

4 0
3 years ago
Does anyone know the answer to this?
sweet-ann [11.9K]
Disclaimer: I just answered this, here is the answer again!
*Used copy paste from my own answer as it is a repeated question, no copied work*

3. A
The relation between V and I at constant R is;V=IR, so it is a direct linear relation.
4. A
This is another direct linear relation as P=IV.
5. D
The relation between P, R, and V is P=, so P is inversely proportional to R.
6.B
The relation between P,I, and R is , so P is directly proportional to the square of I.

Please note that y:x relations are always straight lines while  relations are parabolic lines.

Hope this helps!
5 0
3 years ago
A constant magnetic field passes through a single rectangular loop whose dimensions are 0.35 m × 0.55 m. The magnetic field has
Pani-rosa [81]

Answer:

Part a)

EMF = 0.38 V

Part b)

\frac{dA}{dt} = 0.43 m^2/s

Explanation:

Part a)

Initial value of magnetic flux is given as

\phi_1 = BAcos\theta

\phi_1 = (2.1)(0.35 \times 0.55) cos65

so we have

\phi_1 = 0.17 Wb

Final flux through the loop is given as

\phi_2 = 0

now EMF is given as

EMF = \frac{\phi_1 - \phi_2}{\Delta t}

EMF = \frac{0.17 - 0}{0.45}

EMF = 0.38 V

Part b)

If magnetic field is constant while Area is changing

So EMF is given as

E = Bcos65 \times \frac{dA}{dt}

0.38 = 2.1 cos65(\frac{dA}{dt})

\frac{dA}{dt} = 0.43 m^2/s

5 0
3 years ago
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