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aliina [53]
3 years ago
13

How are Aurora produced?

Physics
1 answer:
Juli2301 [7.4K]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

The third one.

Explanation:

Atmospheric molecules releasing photons (light) in response to collisions with Solar Wind particles because when auroras are produced what actually happens is that the ions of the solar wind collide with atoms of oxygen and nitrogen from the Earth's atmosphere. The energy released during these collisions causes a colorful glowing halo around the poles which is the aurora.

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What is the difference between a physical change and a chemical change
Contact [7]
A physical change in something doesn't change what the it is. For example, if you break glass, it will still be glass. In a chemical change where there is a chemical reaction, a new thing is formed and energy is either given off or absorbed. For example, when you burn a log. The carbon in the log is reacting to the oxygen to create ashe and smoke
6 0
3 years ago
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Which one is an accurate description of the process of erosion?
AURORKA [14]
The accurate description of the process of erosion is when <span>moving bits of rock and soil across the earth’s surface by water, wind, or glaciers. The answer is letter C.</span>
4 0
3 years ago
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Please help, I do not understand
Anettt [7]
I think the key here is to be exquisitely careful at all times, and
any time we make any move, keep our units with it.

We're given two angular speeds, and we need to solve for a time.

Outer (slower) planet:
Angular speed =  ω  rad/sec
Time per unit angle =  (1/ω)  sec/rad
Angle per revolution = 2π rad
Time per revolution = (1/ω sec/rad) · (2π rad) = 2π/ω seconds .

Inner (faster) planet:
Angular speed =  2ω  rad/sec
Time per unit angle =  (1/2ω)  sec/rad
Angle per revolution = 2π rad
Time per revolution = (1/2ω sec/rad) · (2π rad) = 2π/2ω sec = π/ω seconds.

So far so good.  We have the outer planet taking 2π/ω seconds for one
complete revolution, and the inner planet doing it in only π/ω seconds ...
half the time for double the angular speed.  Perfect !

At this point, I know what I'm thinking, but it's hard to explain.
I'm pretty sure that the planets are in line on the same side whenever the
total elapsed time is something like a common multiple of their periods.
What I mean is:

They're in line, SOMEwhere on the circles, when

     (a fraction of one orbit) = (the same fraction of the other orbit)    
AND
     the total elapsed time is a common multiple of their periods.

Wait !  Ignore all of that.  I'm doing a good job of confusing myself, and
probably you too.  It may be simpler than that.  (I hope so.)  Throw away
those last few paragraphs.

The planets are in line again as soon as the faster one has 'lapped'
the slower one ... gone around one more time.  
So, however many of the longer period have passed, ONE MORE
of the shorter period have passed.  We're just looking for the Least
Common Multiple of the two periods.

      K (2π/ω seconds)  =  (K+1) (π/ω seconds)

                     2Kπ/ω   =    Kπ/ω + π/ω

Subtract  Kπ/ω :    Kπ/ω = π/ω

Multiply by  ω/π :      K  =  1

(Now I have a feeling that I have just finished re-inventing the wheel.)

And there we have it:

     In the time it takes the slower planet to revolve once,
     the faster planet revolves twice, and catches up with it.
    
     It will be  2π/ω  seconds before the planets line up again.
    
     When they do, they are again in the same position as shown
     in the drawing.

To describe it another way . . . 

     When Kanye has completed its first revolution ...

     Bieber has made it halfway around.

     Bieber is crawling the rest of the way to the starting point while ...

     Kanye is doing another complete revolution.

     Kanye laps Bieber just as they both reach the starting point ...

     Bieber for the first time, Kanye for the second time.


You're welcome.  The generous bounty of 5 points is very gracious,
and is appreciated.  The warm cloudy water and green breadcrust
are also delicious.
5 0
3 years ago
The Displacement is 5m. We found that using the
Llana [10]

Answer:

A vector can be written as:

(R, θ)

Where R is the magnitude, in this case, we know that the magnitude of the displacement is 5m

Then:

R = 5m

and θ defines the direction, it's an angle measured from the positive x-axis.

(In the image, θ would be the angle located at the point A)

Now, if you look at the image, you can see a triangle rectangle.

Where the adjacent cathetus has a length of 4,

the opposite cathetus has a length of 3 units

the hypotenuse has a length of 5 units.

So we can use any trigonometric rule to find the value of θ, like:

sin(θ) = (opposite cathetus)/hypotenuse

Then:

sin(θ) = 3m/5m

Now we can use the inverse sin function, Asin(x), in both sides

Asin( sin(θ)) = θ = Asin( 3/5) = 36.87°

then the vector is:

(5m, 36.87°)

Now, if we define the positive y-axis as the North, and the positive x-axis as the East.

This vector would point at 36.87° North of East.

(or almost Northeast)

7 0
2 years ago
Is a rock that cools quickly after lava rusted through a volcano what is the best description of its texture
gavmur [86]
The physical description would be soft due to the lava cooling the rock.
3 0
3 years ago
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