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Anettt [7]
3 years ago
11

Two identical asteroids travel side by side while touching one another. If the asteroids are composed of homogeneous pure iron a

nd are spherical, what diameter in feet must they have for their mutual gravitational attraction to be 1 lb?

Physics
1 answer:
victus00 [196]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

diameter = 21.81 ft

Explanation:

The gravitational force equation is:

  1. F=\frac{GMm}{R^{2} }

Where:

  • F => Gravitational force or force of attraction between two masses
  • M => Mass of asteroid 1
  • m => Mass of asteroid 2
  • R => Distance between asteroids 1 and 2 (from center of gravity)

We also know that the asteroids are identical so their masses are identical:

  • M=m

Since R is the distance between centers of the two asteroids and their diameters are identical (see attachment), we can conclude that:

  • R=d=2r

We don´t know the mass of the asteroids but we know they are composed of pure iron, so we can relate their masses to their density:

  • m=ρV

This is going to be helpful because the volume of a sphere is:

  • \frac{4}{3}\pi r^{3}

And know we can write our original force of gravity equation in terms of the radius of the asteroids:

  • F=\frac{GMm}{R^{2} } =\frac{Gmm}{(2r)^{2} } =\frac{Gm^{2} }{4r^{2} }
  • F=\frac{G ( \frac{4}{3}\pi r^{3}ρ)^{2} }{4r^{2} }
  • F= \frac{G(16)\pi ^{2} r^{6} ρ^{2}}{(9)(4)r^{2} } =\frac{G(16)\pi ^{2} r^{4}ρ^{2}  }{36}

Now let´s plug in the values we know:

  1. F = 1 lb     mutual gravitational attraction force
  2. G = 6.67(10)^{-11}     gravitational constant
  3. ρ_{iron} =491.5 \frac{lb}{ft^{3} }

  • 1= \frac{6.67(10)^{-11} \pi ^{2} r^{4} (491.5)^{2}}{36}

Solve for r and multiply by 2 because 2r = diameter

  • d=2\sqrt[4]{\frac{1}{7.07(10)^{-5} } }

Result is d = 21.81 Feet

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In order to keep the car in the turn in circular motion without sliding, the frictional force must provide the centripetal force necessary for the circular motion.

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m is the mass of the car

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r is the radius of the curve

For the car in this turn, we have

m = 1000 kg

v = 30 m/s

r=\frac{0.20 km}{2}=0.10 km = 100 m (since the diameter is 0.20 km, the radius is half that value)

And substituting, we find

F_f = (1000) \frac{30^2}{100}=9000 N

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Read 2 more answers
A 3.0-kg block starts at rest at the top of a 37° incline, which is 5.0 m long. Its speed when it reaches the bottom is 2.0 m/s.
Mama L [17]

Answer: f_{r} = 16.49N

Explanation: The object is placed on an inclined plane at an angle of 37° thus making it weight have two component,

W_{x} = horizontal component of the weight = mgsinФ

W_{y} = vertical component of weight = mgcosФ

Due to the way the object is positioned, the horizontal component of force will accelerate the object thus acting as an applied force.

by using newton's law of motion, we have that

mgsinФ - f_{r} = ma

where m = mass of object=5kg

a = acceleration= unknown

Ф = angle of inclination = 37°

g = acceleration due to gravity = 9.8m/s^{2}

f_{r} = frictional force = unknown

we need to first get the acceleration before the frictional force which is gotten by using the equation below

v^{2} = u^{2} + 2aS

where v = final velocity = 2m/s

u = initial velocity = 0m/s (because the object started from rest)

a= unknown

S= distance covered = length of plane = 5m

2^{2} = 0^{2} + 2*a*5\\\\4= 10 *a\\\\a = \frac{4}{10} \\a = 0.4m/s^{2}

we slot in a into the equation below to get frictional force

mgsinФ - f_{r} = ma

3 * 9.8 * sin 37 - f_{r} = 3* 0.4

17.9633 - f_{r} =  1.2

f_{r} = 17.9633 - 1.2

f_{r} = 16.49N

4 0
3 years ago
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