1answer.
Ask question
Login Signup
Ask question
All categories
  • English
  • Mathematics
  • Social Studies
  • Business
  • History
  • Health
  • Geography
  • Biology
  • Physics
  • Chemistry
  • Computers and Technology
  • Arts
  • World Languages
  • Spanish
  • French
  • German
  • Advanced Placement (AP)
  • SAT
  • Medicine
  • Law
  • Engineering
AURORKA [14]
3 years ago
10

Two particles, one with charge − 7.97 μC and one with charge 3.55 μC, are 6.59 cm apart. What is the magnitude of the force that

one particle exerts on the other?
Physics
1 answer:
Arlecino [84]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

58.6 N

Explanation:

We are given that

q_1=-7.97\mu C=-7.97\times 10^{-6} C

q_2=3.55\mu C=3.55\times 10^{-6} C

Using 1\mu C=10^{-6} C

r=6.59 cm=6.59\times 10^{-2} m

1 cm=10^{-2} m

The magnitude of force that one particle exerts on the other

F=\frac{kq_1q_2}{r^2}

Where k=9\times 10^9

Substitute the values

F=\frac{9\times 10^9\times 7.97\times 10^{-6}\times 3.55\times 10^{-6}}{(6.59\times 10^{-2})^2}

F=58.6 N

You might be interested in
9. Calculate the distance (in km) that Charlie runs if he maintains the average
Karo-lina-s [1.5K]

<u>Correct Question:</u>

Calculate the distance (in km) charlie runs if he maintains an average speed of 8 km/hr for 1 hour

<u>Answer:</u>

The total distance covered by Charlie is 8 km in 1 hour.

<u>Explanation:</u>

The average velocity as given in the question is,

v = 8 km/hr

Total time taken,

$t=1 hour

As we know the formula to evaluate the total distance d when the average velocity and time is given;

v=\frac{d}{t}

d=v \times t

d=8 \times 1

d=8 k m

Hence, the total distance covered by Charlie in 1 hour will be 8 km.

5 0
3 years ago
Determine the magnitude and direction of the resultant force of the following free body diagram.
Papessa [141]

Answer:

The magnitude and direction of the resultant force are approximately 599.923 newtons and 36.405°.

Explanation:

First, we must calculate the resultant force (\vec F), in newtons, by vectorial sum:

\vec F = [(-200\,N)\cdot \cos 60^{\circ}+(400\,N)\cdot \cos 45^{\circ}+300\,N]\,\hat{i} + [(200\,N)\cdot \sin 60^{\circ} + (400\,N)\cdot \sin 45^{\circ}-100\,N]\,\hat{j} (1)

\vec F = 182.843\,\hat{i} + 356.048\,\hat{j}

Second, we calculate the magnitude of the resultant force by Pythagorean Theorem:

\|\vec F\| = \sqrt{(482.843\,N)^{2}+(356.048\,N)^{2}}

\|\vec F\| \approx 599.923\,N

Let suppose that direction of the resultant force is an standard angle. According to (1), the resultant force is set in the first quadrant:

\theta = \tan^{-1}\left(\frac{356.048\,N}{482.843\,N} \right)

Where \theta is the direction of the resultant force, in sexagesimal degrees.

\theta \approx 36.405^{\circ}

The magnitude and direction of the resultant force are approximately 599.923 newtons and 36.405°.

4 0
3 years ago
The position of a certain airplane during takeoff is given by x=1/2 *bt2, where b = 2.0 m/s2 and t = 0 corresponds to the instan
Serhud [2]

Answer:

1362000 kgm/s

Explanation:

So the total mass combination of the plane and the people inside it is

M = 35000 + 160*65 = 45400 kg

After 15 seconds at an acceleration of 2 m/s2, the plane speed would be

V = 2*15 = 30 m/s

So the magnitude of the plane 15s after brakes are released is

MV = 45400 * 30 = 1362000 kgm/s

5 0
3 years ago
Boyle's Law mainly involves _______.
goblinko [34]
Your answer is B, gases
6 0
3 years ago
A pendulum has 294 J of potential energy at the highest point of its swing. How much kinetic energy will it have at the bottom o
baherus [9]

Newton's law of conservation states that energy of an isolated system remains a constant. It can neither be created nor destroyed but can be transformed from one form to the other.


Implying the above law of conservation of energy in the case of pendulum we can conclude that at the bottom of the swing the entire potential energy gets converted to kinetic energy. Also the potential energy is zero at this point.


Mathematically also potential energy is represented as


Potential energy= mgh


Where m is the mass of the pendulum.


g is the acceleration due to gravity


h is the height from the bottom z the ground.


At the bottom of the swing,the height is zero, hence the potential energy is also zero.


The kinetic energy is represented mathematically as


Kinetic energy= 1/2 mv^2


Where m is the mass of the pendulum


v is the velocity of the pendulum


At the bottom the pendulum has the maximum velocity. Hence the kinetic energy is maximum at the bottom.


Energy can neither be created e destroyed. It can only be transferred from one form to another. Implying this law and the above explainations we conclude that at the bottom of the pendulum,the potential energy=0 and the kinetic energy=294J as the entire potential energy is converted to kinetic energy at the bottom.



6 0
4 years ago
Other questions:
  • 2 Points
    11·1 answer
  • When light (or another wave) bounces back from a surface ?
    6·1 answer
  • A surfer is actually traveling on which part of a surface wave
    5·2 answers
  • What is the mass of an object that requires 100N of force in order to accelerate it at 10m/s2 ?
    8·2 answers
  • F a light bulb produces 60.0 J of electrical energy and is 45% efficient, how much energy does it use?
    8·2 answers
  • How many meters will a car travel if its speed is 45 m/s in an interval of 11 seconds?
    8·2 answers
  • A 1200 kg truck is moving to the right at the speed of 30 m/s. It hit another identical truck that was at rest. The two trucks s
    10·1 answer
  • What is a star? What is our biggest and closest star?<br> (Btw i wasn't sure if this was Physics.)
    9·2 answers
  • A skateboarder traveling with an initial velocity 9.0 meters per second,
    7·1 answer
  • a 20-kg object travelling at 20 m/s collides head on with an 18-kg object travelling at 17 m/s.If they were locked together afte
    9·1 answer
Add answer
Login
Not registered? Fast signup
Signup
Login Signup
Ask question!