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3 years ago

Do metal atoms tend to gain or lose electrons?

2 answers:

german3 years ago

6 0

The elements of the periodic table are classified into three categories: inert gases, nonmetals and metals. Generally, inert gases do not readily gain nor lose electrons, while nonmetals are more likely to acquire electrons. Metals contain low ionization energies, which refer to the amount of energy required to free or remove an electron. These elements also have low electron affinities, or the attractive forces between an incoming electron and the nucleus of an atom. The lower the ionization energies and electron affinities of an atom are, the greater the tendency to lose electrons.

Solnce55 [7]3 years ago

3 0

Metal atoms have the tendency to lose electrons. The type of chemical bonding formed by atoms of metallic elements is called metallic bonding.In terms of gaining or losing electrons, the elements of the periodic table are classified into three categories: inert gases, nonmetals and metals. Generally, inert gases do not readily gain nor lose electrons, while nonmetals are more likely to acquire electrons. Metals contain low ionization energies, which refer to the amount of energy required to free or remove an electron. These elements also have low electron affinities, or the attractive forces between an incoming electron and the nucleus of an atom. The lower the ionization energies and electron affinities of an atom are, the greater the tendency to lose electrons.

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There are two blocks: one large one initially at rest, and a smaller one, initially moving to the right withsome speed. The smal

KATRIN_1 [288]

Answer:

Explanation:

Let the initial velocity of small block be v .

by applying conservation of momentum we can find velocity of common mass

25 v = 75 V , V is velocity of common mass after collision.

V = v / 3

For reaching the height we shall apply conservation of mechanical energy

1/2 m v² = mgh

1/2 x 75 x V² = 75 x g x 10

V² = 2g x 10

v² / 9 = 2 x 9.8 x 10

v² = 9 x 2 x 9.8 x 10

v = 42 m /s

small block must have velocity of 42 m /s .

Impulse by small block on large block

= change in momentum of large block

= 75 x V

= 75 x 42 / 3

= 1050 Ns.

6 0

3 years ago

A 6 N and a 10 N force act on an object. The moment arm of the 6 N force is 0.2 m. If the 10 N force produces five times the tor

Levart [38]

Answer:

The moment arm is 0.6 m

Explanation:

Given that,

First force $F_{1}=6\ N$

Second force $F_{2}=10\ N$

Distance r = 0.2 m

We need to calculate the moment arm

Using formula of torque

$\tau=Force\times lever\ arm$

So, Here,

$\tau_{2}=5 \tau_{1}$

We know that,

The torque is the product of the force and distance.

Put the value of torque in the equation

$F_{2}\times d_{2}=5\times F_{1}\times r_{1}$

$r_{2}=\dfrac{5\times F_{1}\times r_{1}}{F_{2}}$

Where, $F_{1}$ =First force

$F_{1}$ =First force

$F_{2}$ =Second force

$r_{1}$ = distance

Put the value into the formula

$r_{2}=\dfrac{5\times6\times0.2}{10}$

$r_{2}=0.6\ m$

Hence, The moment arm is 0.6 m

6 0

3 years ago

Why do you want the water to drip off the metal before it is placed in the calorimeter?

VMariaS [17]

Answer:

(A) The mass and the initial temperature of the calorimeter water will be incorrect and affect the calculation of the specific heat capacity of the metal.

8 0

3 years ago

A: How far did she travel? B: How long did she take?

allochka39001 [22]

A. 60 miles
B. 5 hours

Unless you are looking for slope, in which case the answer is different

7 0

3 years ago

Kevin is refinishing his rusty wheelbarrow. He moves his sandpaper back and forth 45 times over a rusty area, each time moving a

dmitriy555 [2]

W = _|....F*dx*cos(a)........With F=force, x=distance over which force acts on object,
.......0.............................and a=angle between force and direction of travel.

Since the force is constant in this case we don't need the equation to be an integral expression, and since the force in question - the force of friction - is always precisely opposite the direction of travel (which makes (a) equal to 180 deg, and cos(a) equal to -1) the equation can be rewritted like so:

W = F*x*(-1) ............ or ............. W = -F*x

The force of friction is given by the equation: Ffriction = Fnormal*(coeff of friction)

Also, note that the total work is the sum of all 45 passes by the sandpaper. So our final equation, when Ffriction is substituted, is:

W = (-45)(Fnormal)(coeff of friction)(distance)
W = (-45)...(1.8N).........(0.92).........(0.15m)
W = ................-11.178 Joules

5 0

3 years ago