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777dan777 [17]
3 years ago
14

Which is equivalent sin^-1 (cos(pi/2))?Give your answer in radians

Mathematics
2 answers:
NNADVOKAT [17]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

Given the expression: \sin^{-1}(\cos(\frac{\pi}{2}))

Let the value of the given expression in radians be \theta

then;

\sin^{-1}(\cos(\frac{\pi}{2})) =\theta

\cos \frac{\pi}{2} = \sin \theta              ......[1]

We know the value of \cos \frac{\pi}{2} = 0

Substitute the given value in [1] we have;

\sin \theta = 0

Since, the value of \sin \theta is 0, therefore, the value of \theta is in the form of:

\theta = n\pi ; where n is the integer.

At n =0, 1 and 2, {Since, n is the integer}

Value of  \theta =0, \pi and 2\pi

therefore, the answer in radians either   0 , \pi or 2\pi


rosijanka [135]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

[A]  0

Step-by-step explanation:

<em>Use the following identity:</em>  cos(x) = sin( \frac{\pi }{2} - x)

arcsin(cos(\frac{\pi }{2})) = arcsin(sin(\frac{\pi }{2} - \frac{\pi }{2}))

= arcsin(sin(\frac{\pi }{2} - \frac{\pi }{2}))

<em>Simplify:</em>

arcsin(sin(0)) = 0

Hope this helps!

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