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ipn [44]
3 years ago
9

A noninverting op-amp circuit with a gain of 96 V/V is found to have a 3-dB frequency of 8 kHz. For a particular system applicat

ion, a bandwidth of 32 kHz is required. What is the highest gain available under these conditions?
Physics
1 answer:
umka21 [38]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

Av_2 =24\ V/V

Explanation:

given,

op-amp circuit with a gain of = (Av₁) = 96 V/V

Band width  = (Bw₁) = 8 kHz

Required bandwidth(Bw₂) = 32 kHz

Highest gain available =(Av₂) = ?

For the given system Bandwidth product is constant

                           Av₁ Bw₁ = Av₂ Bw₂

                           96 x 8 = Av₂ x 32

                           Av_2= \dfrac{96\times 8}{32}

                           Av_2 =24\ V/V

the highest gain available under these conditions Av_2 =24\ V/V

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Inductors in parallel. Two inductors L1 = 1.31 H and L2 = 2.24 H are connected in parallel and separated by a large distance so
mote1985 [20]

Answer:

a) 0.83H

b) 3.22/N Henry

Explanation:

Given two inductors L1 = 1.31 H and L2 = 2.24 H connected in parallel, their equivalent inductance derivative is similar to that of resistance in parallel.

Derivation:

If the voltage across an inductor

VL = IXL

I is the current

XL is the inductive reactance

XL = 2πfL

VL = I(2πfL)

L is the inductance.

From the formula, I = V/2πfL

Given two inductors in parallel, different current will flow through them.

I1 = V/2πfL1 (current in L1)

I2 = V/2πfL2 (current in L2)

Total current I = I1+I2

I = V/2πfL1 + V/2πfL2

I = V/2πf{1/L1+1/L2}

V/2πfL = V/2πf{1/L1+1/L2}

1/L = 1/L1+1/L2 (equivalent inductance in parallel)

Given L1 = 1.31 H and L2 = 2.24

1/L = 1/1.31 + 1/2.24

1/L = 0.763 + 0.446

1/L = 1.209

L = 1/1.209

L = 0.83H

The equivalent inductance is 0.83H

b) Given similar inductors L = 3.22H in parallel, the equivalent inductance will be:

1/L = 1/3.22+1/3.22+1/3.22+1/3.22+1/3.22

+1/3.22+1/3.22+1/3.22+1/3.22+1/3.22

1/L = 10/3.22 (since that all have the same denominator)

L = 3.22/10

If N = 10, the generalization of 10 similar inductors in parallel will be:

L = 3.22/N Henry

4 0
3 years ago
A man does 4,780 J of work in the process of pushing his 2.70 103 kg truck from rest to a speed of v, over a distance of 25.5 m.
wolverine [178]

Answer:

(A) Velocity will be 1.88 m/sec

(b) Force will be 187.45 N

Explanation:

We have given work done = 4780 j

Distance d = 25.5 m

(A) Mass of the truck m = m=2.70\times 10^3kg

We know that kinetic energy is given  by

KE=\frac{1}{2}mv^2

So v=\sqrt{\frac{2KE}{m}}=\sqrt{\frac{2\times 4780}{2.7\times 10^3}}=1.88m/sec

(B) We know that work done is given by

W = Fd

So F=\frac{W}{d}=\frac{4780}{25.5}=187.45N

4 0
3 years ago
A vehicle reaches a speed of 7.5 m/s over 15 seconds. What is its acceleration if it
denpristay [2]

acceleration = \frac{velocity}{time}  = \frac{7.5}{15}  = 0.5ms^-^2

So the answer is option b.

8 0
3 years ago
In a swimming meet, the swimmers swim a total of 8 laps of a 50-meter-long swimming pool. What is the distance traveled by a swi
N76 [4]

Answer:

The swimmer has a distance traveled of 800 meters.

The final displacement of the swimmer is 0 meters.

Explanation:

A lap is a round trip made by a swimmer in the pool, so that the distance traveled by swimmer is sixteen times the length of the swimming pool. That is:

s = \left(2\,\frac{travels}{lap} \right)\cdot \left(8\,laps \right)\cdot \left(50\,\frac{m}{travel}\right)

s = 800\,m

A swimmer has a distance traveled of 800 meters.

The displacement is the distance between swimmer and a reference point, let suppose that reference point is located at the beginning of the first lap. Hence, the final displacement of the swimmer is 0 meters.

7 0
3 years ago
A vertical spring launcher is attached to the top of a block and a ball is placed in the launcher, as shown in the figure. While
kvasek [131]

For a vertical spring launcher is attached to the top of a block and a ball is placed in the launcher, the position of the ball will be  behind the box

<h3>What will be the position of the ball relative to the spring launcher?</h3>

Generally, the equation for the  conservation of momentum principle  is mathematically given as

(M+m) V1 = M*V2

Therefore, with the ball moving forward we have that; the ball at top it wii be behind the box,

Read more about Motion

brainly.com/question/605631

7 0
2 years ago
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