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3 years ago

. Which is the transfer of energy as waves moving through space?

Physics

1 answer:

Solnce55 [7]3 years ago

6 0

Answer:

Radiation is the answer to your question

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A 53.0-kg skater is traveling due east at a speed of 2.90 m/s. A 72.0-kg skater is moving due south at a speed of 6.20 m/s. They

soldier1979 [14.2K]

Answer:

a. $\thta=71^{\circ}$

b. $v_f=3.78 m/s$

Explanation:

We are given that

$m_1=53 kg$

$v_1=2.9 m/s$

$m_2= 72 kg$

$v_2=6.2 m/s$

a.We have to find the angle

$\theta=tan^{-1}{\frac{m_2v_2}{m_1v_1}=\frac{72(6.2)}{53(2.9)}=71^{\circ}$

$\theta=71^{\circ}$

b. We have to find the speed $v_f$

According to law of conservation of momentum

$m_1v_1=(m_1+m_2)v_fcos\theta$

$53(2.9)=(53+72)v_fcos 71^{\circ}=40.7 v_f$

$v_f=\frac{153.7}{40.7}=3.78 m/s$

3 0

3 years ago

How many days are in a year on mars

Triss [41]

687 days
hope this helps
stay safe
brainliest is appreciated

7 0

3 years ago

An object is placed in front of a diverging lens, such that the object-to-image distance is 71 cm.

Pachacha [2.7K]

Explanation:

Given that,

Object-to-image distance d= 71 cm

Image distance = 26 cm

We need to calculate the object distance

$u -v= d$

$u=71+26=97\ cm$

We need to calculate the focal length

Using formula of lens

$\dfrac{1}{f}=\dfrac{1}{v}-\dfrac{1}{u}$

put the value into the formula

$\dfrac{1}{f}=\dfrac{1}{-26}+\dfrac{1}{97}$

$\dfrac{1}{f}=-\dfrac{71}{2522}$

$f=-35.52\ cm$

The focal length of the lens is 35.52.

(B). Given that,

Object distance = 95 cm

Focal length = 29 cm

We need to calculate the distance of the image

Using formula of lens

$\dfrac{1}{f}=\dfrac{1}{v}-\dfrac{1}{u}$

Put the value in to the formula

$\dfrac{1}{-29}=\dfrac{1}{v}-\dfrac{1}{95}$

$\dfrac{1}{v}=\dfrac{1}{-29}-\dfrac{1}{95}$

$\dfrac{1}{v}=-\dfrac{124}{2755}$

$v=-22.21\ cm$

We need to calculate the magnification

Using formula of magnification

$m=\dfrac{v}{u}$

$m=\dfrac{22.21}{95}$

$m=0.233$

The magnification is 0.233.

The image is virtual.

Hence, This is the required solution.

4 0

3 years ago

Planet 1 orbits Star 1 and Planet 2 orbits Star 2 in circular orbits of the same radius. However, the orbital period of Planet 1

hichkok12 [17]

Answer:

The mass of Star 2 is Greater than the mass of Start 1. (This, if we suppose the masses of the planets are much smaller than the masses of the stars)

Explanation:

First of all, let's draw a free body diagram of a planet orbiting a star. (See attached picture).

From the free body diagram we can build an equation with the sum of forces between the start and the planet.

$\sum F=ma$

We know that the force between two bodies due to gravity is given by the following equation:

$F_{g} = G\frac{m_{1}m_{2}}{r^{2}}$

in this case we will call:

M= mass of the star

m= mass of the planet

r = distance between the star and the planet

G= constant of gravitation.

so:

$F_{g} =G\frac{Mm}{r^{2}}$

Also, if the planet describes a circular orbit, the centripetal force is given by the following equation:

$F_{c}=ma_{c}$

where the centripetal acceleration is given by:

$a_{c}=\omega ^{2}r$

where

$\omega = \frac{2\pi}{T}$

Where T is the period, and $\omega$ is the angular speed of the planet, so:

$a_{c} = ( \frac{2\pi}{T})^{2}r$

or:

$a_{c}=\frac{4\pi^{2}r}{T^{2}}$

so:

$F_{c}=m(\frac{4\pi^{2}r}{T^{2}})$

so now we can do the sum of forces:

$\sum F=ma$

$F_{g}=ma_{c}$

$G\frac{Mm}{r^{2}}=m(\frac{4\pi^{2}r}{T^{2}})$

in this case we can get rid of the mass of the planet, so we get:

$G\frac{M}{r^{2}}=(\frac{4\pi^{2}r}{T^{2}})$

we can now solve this for $T^{2}$ so we get:

$T^{2} = \frac{4\pi ^{2}r^{3}}{GM}$

We could take the square root to both sides of the equation but that would not be necessary. Now, the problem tells us that the period of planet 1 is longer than the period of planet 2, so we can build the following inequality:

$T_{1}^{2}>T_{2}^{2}$

So let's see what's going on there, we'll call:

$M_{1}$ = mass of Star 1

$M_{2}$ = mass of Star 2

So:

$\frac{4\pi^{2}r^{3}}{GM_{1}}>\frac{4\pi^{2}r^{3}}{GM_{2}}$

we can get rid of all the constants so we end up with:

$\frac{1}{M_{1}}>\frac{1}{M_{2}}$

and let's flip the inequality, so we get:

$M_{2}>M_{1}$

This means that for the period of planet 1 to be longer than the period of planet 2, we need the mass of star 2 to be greater than the mass of star 1. This makes sense because the greater the mass of the star is, the greater the force it applies on the planet is. The greater the force, the faster the planet should go so it stays in orbit. The faster the planet moves, the smaller the period is. In this case, planet 2 is moving faster, therefore it's period is shorter.

6 0

3 years ago

A В C D At which point will an image be formed? ОА Ов Ос OD

Anettt [7]

Answer:

Explanation:

it may be oa is the right answer for this question

but I don't know properly

8 0

2 years ago