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Tems11 [23]
3 years ago
13

If it takes 600 N to move a box 5 meters, how much work is done on the box?

Physics
2 answers:
erastovalidia [21]3 years ago
8 0
C it is 600 x 5 = 3000 J hope this helped!
Anika [276]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

<h2>3000 J</h2>

Option C is the correct option.

Explanation:

Given,

Force = 600 N

Distance = 5 meters

Work = ?

Now,

Work = Force \times distance

= 600  \times 5

Calculate the product

= 3000 \: Joule

Hope this helps...

Good luck on your assignment..

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A 14.0 m uniform ladder weighing 490 N rests against a frictionless wall. The ladder makes a 63.0°-angle with the horizontal.
crimeas [40]

Answer:

Explanation:

Given:

length of ladder r_L = 14m

weight of ladder F_L = 490N

position of firefighter r_F = 3.8m

weight of firefighter F_F = 820N

angle of ladder \alpha = 63

Unknown:

force of the wall on the ladder F_W

force of friction on base of ladder F_R

normal force on base of ladder F_N

From the free body diagram of the sketch you get 3 equations:

F_x = ma_x = F_W - F_R = 0\\ F_y = ma_y = F_N - F_F - F_L = 0\\ \tau _P = \overrightarrow{r} \times \overrightarrow{F} = r_FF_Fcos\alpha + \frac{1}{2}r_LF_Lcos\alpha - r_LF_Wsin\alpha = 0

Solving the equations gives:

F_W = F_R\\ F_N = F_F + F_L\\ F_W = \frac{r_FF_F + 0.5r_LF_L}{r_L tan\alpha}

a)

F_R = 238N\\ F_N = 1310N

b)

F_R = \mu F_N\\ \mu = \frac{F_R}{F_N} \\ \mu = 0.3

c) Using the result from b and solving for r_F

\\ \mu = 0.15\\ F_R = \mu F_N\\ r_F = 2.4m

4 0
4 years ago
A speed boat increases its speed uniformly from vi = 20.0 m/s to vf = 30.0 m/s in a distance of 2.00 x 10^2m. (a) Draw a coordin
pychu [463]

a) See graph in attachment

b) The suvat equation to use is v_f^2 - v_i^2 = 2as

c) The acceleration is a=\frac{v_f^2-v_i^2}{2s}

d) The acceleration is 1.25 m/s^2

e) The time needed is 8 s

Explanation:

a)

For this part, find in attachment the diagram representing this situation.

Since we are not given any particular direction for the motion, we choose the x-direction as the direction of motion of the boat.

Then we have the following:

- The initial position of the boat is x_i = 0, the origin

- The  final position of the boat is x_f = 200 m

- The initial velocity of the boat is v_i = 20.0 m/s

- The final velocity of the boat is v_f = 30.0 m/s

Note that the arrow representing the final velocity is longer than that of the initial velocity, since the final velocity is larger.

b)

The motion of the speed boat is a uniformly accelerated motion (motion at constant acceleration), therefore we can use one of the suvat equations. In this particular problem, we know the following quantities:

v_i = 20.0 m/s, the initial velocity

v_f = 30.0 m/s, the final velocity

s = x_f - x_i = 200 m, the  displacement of the boat

Therefore, the equation that best can be use to find the acceleration is

v_f^2 - v_i^2 = 2as

where

a is the acceleration

c)

Now we have to solve the equation

v_f^2 - v_i^2 = 2as

In order to find the acceleration.

This can be done by dividing both terms by 2s: this way, we find

\frac{v_f^2-v_i^2}{2s}=\frac{2as}{2s}

And so the acceleration is

a=\frac{v_f^2-v_i^2}{2s}

d)

Now we can use the equation found in part c) in order to find the acceleration.

We have the following data:

v_i = 20.0 m/s, the initial velocity

v_f = 30.0 m/s, the final velocity

s = x_f - x_i = 200 m, the  displacement of the boat

And substituting into the equation,

a=\frac{30^2-20^2}{2(200)}=1.25 m/s^2

e)

In order to find the time it takes the boat to travel the given distance, we can use the following suvat equation:

v_f = v_i + at

where:

v_i is the initial velocity

v_f is the final velocity

a is the acceleration

t is the time

Here we have:

v_i = 20.0 m/s

v_f = 30.0 m/s

a=1.25 m/s^2

Solving for t, we find:

t=\frac{v_f-v_i}{a}=\frac{30-20}{1.25}=8 s

Learn more about accelerated motion:

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8 0
4 years ago
Anybody got any answers???
dexar [7]

Answer:

b? to a?

Explanation:

6 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Why is an iron bolt attracted to a magnet?
icang [17]

Answer:

A. When it is in a magnetic field, it becomes a temporary magnet.

Explanation:

An iron bolt is attracted to a magnet because when in a magnetic field, the iron becomes a temporary magnet.

This is because the iron aligns their electrons in the magnetic fields.

  • This causes that attraction between the magnet and the iron.
  • Metals like iron are said to be ferromagnetic
  • Unpaired electrons in iron spin in such a way that they align with the magnetic fields of the magnet.
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3 years ago
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6 Fig. 6.1 is a full-scale diagram that represents a sound wave travelling in air
Oxana [17]

From  the measured wavelength from diagram, the frequency of the sound is 6660 Hz.

<h3>What is the frequency of a wave?</h3>

The frequency of a wave is the number of complete oscillation per second completed by a wave.

Frequency is related to wavelength and speed by the following formula:

  • Frequency = velocity/wavelength

Velocity of sound in air = 330 m/s

The measured wavelength = 5.0 cm = 0.05 m

Frequency = 330/0.05 = 6660 Hz

Therefore, based on the measured wavelength from diagram, the frequency of the sound is 6660 Hz.

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7 0
2 years ago
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