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sleet_krkn [62]
4 years ago
14

Which particle is most likely to interact with your hand? Select one: a. Alpha particle b. Beta particle c. Gamma particle d. Ne

utrino
Physics
1 answer:
IgorLugansk [536]4 years ago
4 0

Answer:

The correct option is a

Explanation:

The alpha particle has the lowest penetrating power of the trio of alpha, beta and gamma particles and can be stopped by a sheet of paper and hence cannot penetrate a human skin. Beta particle has a higher penetrating power than alpha particle (some of it penetrates the human skin and some do not) while the gamma particle has the highest penetrating power (with all of it penetrating the human skin).

From the above description, it can be deduced that the alpha particle will stay and interact with the hand (because of its low penetrating power) as the remaining particles move through the skin.

You might be interested in
Why do force and weight have same units?
ankoles [38]

Answer:

Weight is a force

Explanation:

Weight is the force of gravity on a mass. It can also be seen through this equation: F=ma, where m is the mass of the object and a is the acceleration of gravity.

3 0
4 years ago
A projectile of mass m is launched with an initial velocity vector v i making an angle θ with the horizontal as shown below. The
sergeinik [125]
Angular momentum is given by the length of the arm to the object, multiplied by the momentum of the object, times the cosine of the angle that the momentum vector makes with the arm. From your illustration, that will be: 
<span>L = R * m * vi * cos(90 - theta) </span>

<span>cos(90 - theta) is just sin(theta) </span>
<span>and R is the distance the projectile traveled, which is vi^2 * sin(2*theta) / g </span>

<span>so, we have: L = vi^2 * sin(2*theta) * m * vi * sin(theta) / g </span>

<span>We can combine the two vi terms and get: </span>

<span>L = vi^3 * m * sin(theta) * sin(2*theta) / g </span>

<span>What's interesting is that angular momentum varies with the *cube* of the initial velocity. This is because, not only does increased velocity increase the translational momentum of the projectile, but it increase the *moment arm*, too. Also note that there might be a trig identity which lets you combine the two sin() terms, but nothing jumps out at me right at the moment. </span>

<span>Now, for the first part... </span>

<span>There are a few ways to attack this. Basically, you have to find the angle from the origin to the apogee (highest point) in the arc. Once we have that, we'll know what angle the momentum vector makes with the moment-arm because, at the apogee, we know that all of the motion is *horizontal*. </span>

<span>Okay, so let's get back to what we know: </span>

<span>L = d * m * v * cos(phi) </span>

<span>where d is the distance (length to the arm), m is mass, v is velocity, and phi is the angle the velocity vector makes with the arm. Let's take these one by one... </span>

<span>m is still m. </span>
<span>v is going to be the *hoizontal* component of the initial velocity (all the vertical component got eliminated by the acceleration of gravity). So, v = vi * cos(theta) </span>
<span>d is going to be half of our distance R in part two (because, ignoring friction, the path of the projectile is a perfect parabola). So, d = vi^2 * sin(2*theta) / 2g </span>

<span>That leaves us with phi, the angle the horizontal velocity vector makes with the moment arm. To find *that*, we need to know what the angle from the origin to the apogee is. We can find *that* by taking the arc-tangent of the slope, if we know that. Well, we know the "run" part of the slope (it's our "d" term), but not the rise. </span>

<span>The easy way to get the rise is by using conservation of energy. At the apogee, all of the *vertical* kinetic energy at the time of launch (1/2 * m * (vi * sin(theta))^2 ) has been turned into gravitational potential energy ( m * g * h ). Setting these equal, diving out the "m" and dividing "g" to the other side, we get: </span>

<span>h = 1/2 * (vi * sin(theta))^2 / g </span>

<span>So, there's the rise. So, our *slope* is rise/run, so </span>

<span>slope = [ 1/2 * (vi * sin(theta))^2 / g ] / [ vi^2 * sin(2*theta) / g ] </span>

<span>The "g"s cancel. Astoundingly the "vi"s cancel, too. So, we get: </span>

<span>slope = [ 1/2 * sin(theta)^2 ] / [ sin(2*theta) ] </span>

<span>(It's not too alarming that slope-at-apogee doesn't depend upon vi, since that only determines the "magnitude" of the arc, but not it's shape. Whether the overall flight of this thing is an inch or a mile, the arc "looks" the same). </span>

<span>Okay, so... using our double-angle trig identities, we know that sin(2*theta) = 2*sin(theta)*cos(theta), so... </span>

<span>slope = [ 1/2 * sin(theta)^2 ] / [ 2*sin(theta)*cos(theta) ] = tan(theta)/4 </span>

<span>Okay, so the *angle* (which I'll call "alpha") that this slope makes with the x-axis is just: arctan(slope), so... </span>

<span>alpha = arctan( tan(theta) / 4 ) </span>

<span>Alright... last bit. We need "phi", the angle the (now-horizontal) momentum vector makes with that slope. Draw it on paper and you'll see that phi = 180 - alpha </span>

<span>so, phi = 180 - arctan( tan(theta) / 4 ) </span>

<span>Now, we go back to our original formula and plug it ALL in... </span>

<span>L = d * m * v * cos(phi) </span>

<span>becomes... </span>

<span>L = [ vi^2 * sin(2*theta) / 2g ] * m * [ vi * cos(theta) ] * [ cos( 180 - arctan( tan(theta) / 4 ) ) ] </span>

<span>Now, cos(180 - something) = cos(something), so we can simplify a little bit... </span>

<span>L = [ vi^2 * sin(2*theta) / 2g ] * m * [ vi * cos(theta) ] * [ cos( arctan( tan(theta) / 4 ) ) ] </span>
3 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
The transfer of energy when particles of a fluid move from one place to another is called
siniylev [52]

Answer:

Answer below!!!!

Explanation:

Convection is the transfer of thermal energy by particles moving through a fluid.

Hope I Helped!!!

;)

5 0
3 years ago
At what speed do a bicycle and its rider, with a combined mass of 100 kg, have the same momentum as a 1400 kg car traveling at 6
Ilia_Sergeevich [38]
Momentum of car

Given: Mass m= 1,400 Kg;    V = 6.0 m/s

Formula:  P = mv    

                P = (1,400 Kg)(6.0 m/s)

                P = 8,400 Kg.m/s

Velocity of the rider to have the same momentum as a car.

Mass of rider and bicycle  m = 100 Kg

P = mv

V = P/m

V = 8,400 Kg.m/s/100 Kg

V = 84 m/s









7 0
3 years ago
What type of phase change occurs when water vapor in the atmosphere changes to liquid water in clouds?
Mekhanik [1.2K]

Answer:

condensation, the process of changing from a gas to a liquid

3 0
3 years ago
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