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Y_Kistochka [10]
2 years ago
10

The energy (such as light and heat) released by the Sun is produced by nuclear reactions in the core of the Sun, which convert h

ydrogen into helium. According to Einstein's equation E = mc2, the mass of one helium nucleus should be ___________.
Physics
1 answer:
Yanka [14]2 years ago
3 0

Answer:

<em>the mass of one helium nucleus should be</em> <em>less than the mass of four hydrogen nuclei.</em>

Explanation:

Deep inside the core of the Sun, enough protons can collide into each other with enough speed that they stick together to form a helium nucleus and generate a tremendous amount of energy at the same time. This process is called nuclear fusion.

The mass-to-energy conversion is described by Einstein's famous equation:

E = mc2, or, in words, energy equals mass times the square of the velocity of light. Because the velocity of light is a very large number, this equation says that lots of energy can be gained from using up a modest amount of mass.

Photons In the proton-proton chain reaction, hydrogen nuclei are converted to helium nuclei through a number of intermediates. The reactions produce high-energy photons (gamma rays) that move through the "radiative layer" surrounding the core. This layer takes up 60 percent of the radius of the Sun. It takes a million years for energy to get through this layer into the "convective layer", because the photons are constantly intercepted, absorbed and re-emitted. In the core, the helium nuclei make up 62% of the mass (the rest is still hydrogen). The radiative and convective layers have about 72% hydrogen, 26% helium, and 2% heavier elements (by mass). The energy produced by fusion is then transported to the solar surface and emitted as light or ejected as high-energy particles.

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Naomi is taking a train from DC to New York which is 360km apart. If the train is traveling at an average speed of 32 meters per
rodikova [14]

Answer:

11250 seconds or 187.5 mins

Explanation:

The formula to be used here is that of speed.

Speed (in m/s) = distance (meter) ÷ time (secs)

The speed provided is 32 meters per second

The distance provided will have to be converted to meters; 360 km = 360 × 1000 = 360000 meters

Thus,

32 = 360000 ÷ time

time = 360000 ÷ 32

time = 11250 seconds or 187.5 mins

It will take Naomi 11250 seconds to get to New York

4 0
2 years ago
You push on a 30 kg box with a force of 120 N. What is the acceleration of the box2​
kumpel [21]

Answer:

6

Explanation:

120/30=6

8 0
2 years ago
Did you know that your answer automatically gets reported if you have "idk" anywhere in the answer?
Maurinko [17]

Answer:

rlly??

Explanation:

4 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
While Newton's Second Law often deals with formulas and numerical calculations, there exist one very important nonnumerical conv
zheka24 [161]

Option B is the correct answer.

MKS system gives the following units:

Distance ----- meters

Mass ----- Kilograms

Time ----- seconds

meter is basic unit for length measurement. smaller units are centimeter, millimeter, micrometer, bigger units are kilometer and so on.

kilogram is the basic unit for mass. smaller unit is gram.

second is the basic unit for time. Greater units are minutes, hours, smallest unit are micro second and so on.

8 0
3 years ago
Use the law of conservation of energy (assume no friction nor air resistance) to determine the kinetic and potential energy at t
slava [35]

Answer:

Part A

1) At the starting point, we have;

PE = 40,000 J

2) PE = 0 J, KE = 40,000 J

3) KE = 20,000 J

4) PE = 15,000 J

5) KE = 32,500 J

6) KE = 40,000 J, PE = 0 J

7) KE = 35,000 J

8) KE = 40,000 J, PE = 0 J

Part B

The total Mechanical Energy = ME = 40,000 J

At the final point, we have;

ME = KE + PE = 40,000 J + 0 J = 40,000 J

Explanation:

Part A

By the law of conservation of energy, we have;

ME = PE + KE

Where;

ME = The total Mechanical Energy of the system

PE = The Potential Energy of the system

KE = The Kinetic Energy of the system

Where there is no friction, we have;

At the final stage, KE = 40,000 J. PE = 0 J

Therefore, ME = PE + KE = 40,000 J + 0 J = 40,000 J

1) At the starting point, we have;

KE = 0 J, therefore, PE = ME - KE = 40,000 J - 0 J = 40,000 J

2) At the bottom of the roller coaster, at the same level the PE is taken as PE = 0 J at the final stage, we have;

PE = 0 J, therefore, KE = ME - PE = 40,000 J - 0 J = 40,000 J

3) Where PE = 20,000 J, KE = ME - PE = 40,000 J - 20,000 J = 20,000 J

4) Where KE = 25,000 J, PE = ME - KE = 40,000 J - 25,000 J = 15,000 J

5) Where PE = 7,500 J, KE = ME - PE = 40,000 J - 7,500 J = 32,500 J

6) At the bottom KE = 40,000 J, PE = 0 J

7) Where PE = 5,000 J, KE = ME - PE = 40,000 J - 5,000 J = 35,000 J

8) KE = 40,000 J, PE = 0 J

Part B

The given that there is no friction nor air resistance, the total Mechanical Energy, ME, is constant and equal to the sum of the Potential Energy, PE and the Kinetic Energy, KE, as follows;

ME = KE + PE

At the final point, we have;

ME = 40,000 J + 0 J = 40,000 J

The total Mechanical Energy = ME = 40,000 J

8 0
2 years ago
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