Answer:
I believe the answer is 1 2/10
Hope this helps!
Answer:
d. 130
Step-by-step explanation:
Answer: last option (5π√146 units²)
Step-by-step explanation:
To solve the exercise you must apply the formula for calculate the lateral area of a cone, which is shown below:

where r is the radius but L is the slant height.
As you can see in the figure attached:

But you need to find the slant height with the Pythagorean Theorem (L would be the hypotenuse):

Substitute into the formula, then:
units²
There are infinitely many lines that have the point (1,-3).
A line can be expressed as:
y=mx+b, where m=slope and b=y-intercept..
Our only restriction is that it passes through (1,-3) so
-3=1m+b
So as long as the sum of the slope and the y-intercept is equal to -3, that is one of the infinite number of lines that passes through (1, -3)
So we could also say b=-3-m then our infinite lines are:
y=mx-3-m, now any real value of m creates a specific line that passes through the point. ie the first few are
y=x-4, y=2x-5, y=3x-6 or even y=x√2-3-√2