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yulyashka [42]
4 years ago
11

Can you have constant speed with zero net force?

Physics
1 answer:
FinnZ [79.3K]4 years ago
6 0
Yes. Definitely the answer to this question defies the common sense of a layman in physics. However, common sense and intuition may lead you astray from the scientific path.
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since a element and a compound are reacting, this is a single replacement reaction - which is a)
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A point charge is placed 100 m from a 6 µC charge generating an electric field. What is the strength of the electric field on th
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Four fixed point charges are at the corners of a square with sides of length L. Q1 is positive and at (OL) Q2 is positive and at
Ne4ueva [31]

Answer:

A) See Annex

B) Fq₁₂ = K *  Q₁*Q₂ /16 [N] (repulsion force)

C)  Fq₃₂  = K * Q₃*Q₂ /16 [N] (repulsion force)

D) Fq₄₂ = K * Q₄*Q₂ /32 [N] (attraction force)

E) Net force (its components)

Fnx = (2,59/64 )* K*Q²  [N] in direction of original Fq₃₂

Fny =(2,59/64 )* K*Q² [N] in direction of original Fq₁₂

Explanation:

For calculation of d (diagonal of the square, we apply Pythagoras Theorem)

d² = L² + L²    ⇒  d² = 2*L²     ⇒ d = √2*L²   ⇒ d= (√2 )*L

d = 4√2 units of length   (we will assume meters, to work with MKS system of units)

B) Force of Q₁ exerts on charge Q₂

Fq₁₂  = K * Q₁*Q₂ /(L)²     Fq₁₂ = K *  Q₁*Q₂ /16 (repulsion force in the direction indicated in annex)

C) Force of Q₃ exerts on charge Q₂

Fq₃₂  = K * Q₃*Q₂ /(L)²     Fq₃₂  = K * Q₃*Q₂ /16  (repulsion force in the direction indicated in annex)

D) Force of -Q₄ exerts on charge Q₂

Fq₄₂ = K * Q₄*Q₂ / (d)²      Fq₄₂ = K * Q₄*Q₂ /32 (Attraction force in the direction indicated in annex)

E) Net force in the case all charges have the same magnitude Q (keeping the negative sign in Q₄)

Let´s take the force that  Q₄ exerts on Q₂  and Q₂ = Q  ( magnitude) and

Q₄ = -Q

Then the force is:

F₄₂ = K * Q*Q / 32       F₄₂  = K* Q²/32  [N]

We should get its components

F₄₂(x) = [K*Q²/32 ]* √2/2   and so is F₄₂(y)  =  [K*Q²/32 ]* √2/2

Note that this components have opposite direction than forces  Fq₁₂  and

Fq₃₂  respectively, and that Fq₁₂ and Fq₃₂ are bigger than F₄₂(x) and  F₄₂(y) respectively

In new conditions

Fq₁₂ = K *  Q₁*Q₂ /16    becomes  Fq₁₂ = K * Q²/ 16 [N]   and

Fq₃₂ = K* Q₃*Q₂ /16      becomes   Fq₃₂ = K* Q² /16  [N]

Note that Fq₁₂ and Fq₃₂ are bigger than F₄₂(x) and  F₄₂(y) respectively

Then over x-axis we subtract Fq₃₂ - F₄₂(x)  = Fnx

and over y-axis, we subtract   Fq₁₂ - F₄₂(y) = Fny

And we get:

Fnx = K* Q² /16 - [K*Q²/32 ]* √2/2  ⇒  Fnx =  K*Q² [1/16 - √2/64]

Fnx = (2,59/64 )* K*Q²

Fny has the same magnitude  then

Fny =(2,59/64 )* K*Q²

The fact that Fq₁₂ and Fq₃₂ are bigger than F₄₂(x) and  F₄₂(y) respectively, means that Fnx and Fny remains as repulsion forces

5 0
3 years ago
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