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Hitman42 [59]
3 years ago
6

Anyone good with scientific notations? I sure am not

Physics
2 answers:
defon3 years ago
7 0
B is the answer that I know of.
algol133 years ago
5 0
I'm pretty sure it is b but don't take my word for it
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10. CALCULATE: Find the amount of power used in each of the following examples. Show your calculations. a. You use a force of 10
tekilochka [14]

Answer:

please find  attached pdf

Explanation:

Download pdf
3 0
3 years ago
The electric field strength in the space between two closely spaced parallel disks is 1.0 10^5 N/C. This field is the result of
alex41 [277]

To solve this problem it is necessary to apply the concepts related to the capacitance in the disks, the difference of the potential and the load in the disc.

The capacitance can be expressed in terms of the Area, the permeability constant and the diameter:

C = \frac{\epsilon_0 A}{d}

Where,

\epsilon_0 = Permeability constant

A = Cross-sectional Area

d = Diameter

Potential difference between the two disks,

V = Ed

Where,

E = Electric field

d = diameter

Q = Charge on the disk equal to \rightarrow Q=ne=(3.9*10^9)(1.6*10^{-19})= 6.24*10^{-10}C

Through the value found and the expression given for capacitance and potential, we can define the electric charge as

Q = CV

Q = \frac{\epsilon A}{d}(Ed)

Q = \epsilon_0 AE

Q = \epsilon_0 \pi(\frac{d}{2})^2E

Q = \frac{\epsilon \pi d^2E}{4}

Re-arranging the equation to find the diameter of the disks, the equation will be:

d = \sqrt{\frac{4D}{\epsilon_0 \pi E}}

Replacing,

d = \sqrt{\frac{4(6.24*10^{-10})}{(8.85*10^{-12})\pi(1*10^{5})}}

d = 0.0299m

Therefore the diameter of the disks is 0.03m

8 0
3 years ago
At 15°C air is transmitted <br>at 340 m/s. Express this speed<br>in Kilometers per hour.​
EleoNora [17]

Answer:

1224km/hr

Explanation:

To convert from m/s to km/hr

1000m = 1km

Divide both sides by 1000

1m = 1/1000 km................. (1)

60×60 seconds = 1 hr

3600s = 1hr

Divide both sides by 3600

1s = 1/3600 .............(2)

Divide (2) by (1)

1m/s =  1/1000 ÷ 1/3600 km/hr

1m/s = 1/1000 × 3600/1  km/hr

1m/s = 3600/1000  km/hr

1m/s = 3.6 km/hr .............(3)

To convert 340m/s to km/hr

Multiply (3) by 340

1× 340m/s = 3.6 × 340 km/hr

340m/s = 1224km/hr

I hope this was helpful, please mark as brainliest

7 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
If you need 40.0 Nm of torque in order to loosen a nut on a wn
KonstantinChe [14]

Answer:

0.301 m

Explanation:

Torque = Force × Radius

τ = Fr

40.0 Nm = 133 N × r

r = 0.301 m

The mechanic must apply the force 0.301 m from the nut.

6 0
3 years ago
An 89 kg man drops from rest on a diving board −3.1 m above the surface of the water and comes to rest 0.5 s after reaching the
OLga [1]

To solve this problem we will use the linear motion kinematic equations, for which the change of speed squared with the acceleration and the change of position. The acceleration in this case will be the same given by gravity, so our values would be given as,

m= 89 kg\\x = 3.1 m\\t = 0.5s\\a = g = 9.8m/s^2

Through the aforementioned formula we will have to

v_f^2-v_i^2 = 2ax

The particulate part of the rest, so the final speed would be

v_f^2 = 2gx

v_f=\sqrt{2(9.8)(3.1)}

v_f = 7.79m/s

Now from Newton's second law we know that

F = ma

Here,

m = mass

a = acceleration, which can also be written as a function of velocity and time, then

F = m\frac{dv}{dt}

Replacing we have that,

F = (89)\frac{7.79}{0.5}

F = 1386.62N

Therefore the force that the water exert on the man is 1386.62

3 0
3 years ago
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